Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Alteplase. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?

• A. Administer the medication within 4 hours of the onset of symptoms.
• B. Reconstitute the medication with sterile saline.
• C. Administer heparin concurrently with the Alteplase infusion.
• D. Monitor for changes in level of consciousness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase is a thrombolytic agent used to dissolve blood clots. Patients receiving Alteplase are at risk for bleeding complications, including intracranial bleeding. Monitoring for changes in the level of consciousness is crucial as it can indicate early signs of bleeding, such as increased intracranial pressure. This rapid assessment allows for timely intervention and prevention of further complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Administering Alteplase within 4 hours of symptom onset is related to the time-sensitive nature of thrombolytic therapy for conditions like acute myocardial infarction or ischemic stroke. Reconstituting Alteplase with sterile saline is a correct step in preparing the medication for administration. Administering heparin concurrently with Alteplase is generally avoided due to the increased risk of bleeding.

2. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication in the morning.
• B. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• C. Expect decreased urination within the first few days.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia by increasing potassium excretion. Therefore, instructing the client to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods is essential to prevent electrolyte imbalances and support overall health. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Instructing the client to take the medication in the morning is not directly related to the medication's mechanism of action. Expecting decreased urination within the first few days is not accurate as the medication is a diuretic that typically increases urination. Also, advising the client to avoid foods high in potassium would not be suitable, as increasing potassium-rich foods is necessary to counteract potential potassium depletion caused by Hydrochlorothiazide.

3. A client has been prescribed Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can lead to hyperkalemia by inhibiting the action of aldosterone. Hyperkalemia is a potential adverse effect, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's potassium levels to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Incorrect Options Rationale: - Option B, Hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. - Option C, Bradycardia, is not typically associated with Valsartan use. - Option D, Hypercalcemia, is not a known adverse effect of Valsartan; instead, Valsartan can lead to hyperkalemia.

4. A client has a new prescription for Beclomethasone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Rinse your mouth after each use of this medication.
• B. Limit fluid intake while taking this medication.
• C. Increase your intake of vitamin B12 while taking this medication.
• D. You can take the medication as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Beclomethasone is to rinse the mouth after each use to reduce the risk of oral fungal infection. Beclomethasone is a corticosteroid inhaler that can increase the risk of oral thrush, so rinsing the mouth helps minimize this side effect. Choice B is incorrect because there is no need to limit fluid intake while taking Beclomethasone. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific need to increase vitamin B12 intake with this medication. Choice D is incorrect because Beclomethasone should be taken as prescribed, not as needed.

5. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

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