Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of individuals who are not immune to Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following individuals?

• A. 24-year-old woman in the third trimester of pregnancy
• B. 12-year-old child who has a severe allergy to neomycin
• C. 2-month-old infant who has no health problems
• D. 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man with essential hypertension. Individuals not immune to Varicella should receive the vaccine if they did not get two doses earlier. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for the Varicella vaccine. Administering the vaccine to pregnant women, individuals with severe neomycin allergies, or infants is contraindicated. Pregnant women should not receive the Varicella vaccine due to the potential risk to the fetus. Severe neomycin allergies are a contraindication because neomycin is present in the vaccine. Infants under 12 months of age are generally not vaccinated against Varicella unless there are specific circumstances or recommendations.

2. A nurse is teaching a client who has breast cancer about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

• A. You should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding.'
• B. You should take aspirin for minor aches and pains.'
• C. You should avoid contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines.'
• D. You should consume a diet low in protein to reduce the risk of renal damage.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours. The available heparin injection is 20,000 units/mL. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: Desired dose / Concentration = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL. Since the volume needs to be rounded up to the nearest tenth, the correct answer is 0.8 mL. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect because it does not account for rounding up the volume. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the precise calculation based on the given concentration and desired dose.

4. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

• A. Cefaclor
• B. Cefazolin
• C. Cefepime
• D. Cephalexin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a lower risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a lower incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Butorphanol is an opioid agonist/antagonist that can precipitate withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent individuals. Symptoms of abstinence syndrome can include abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. This occurs because butorphanol competes with and displaces opioid agonists from receptors, leading to withdrawal symptoms in opioid-dependent clients. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol does not have a lower risk of abuse than morphine, it can cause respiratory depression similar to other opioids, and although it is an opioid antagonist, it does not get reversed by opioid antagonists.

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