a nurse is caring for a group of clients who are not protected against varicell the nurse should prepare to administer the varicella vaccine at this
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of individuals who are not immune to Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following individuals?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man with essential hypertension. Individuals not immune to Varicella should receive the vaccine if they did not get two doses earlier. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for the Varicella vaccine. Administering the vaccine to pregnant women, individuals with severe neomycin allergies, or infants is contraindicated. Pregnant women should not receive the Varicella vaccine due to the potential risk to the fetus. Severe neomycin allergies are a contraindication because neomycin is present in the vaccine. Infants under 12 months of age are generally not vaccinated against Varicella unless there are specific circumstances or recommendations.

2. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.

3. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine to assist with maintenance of abstinence from opioids. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect associated with Clonidine use. Clonidine is known to cause a reduction in saliva production, leading to dry mouth. Monitoring for this adverse effect is essential to ensure client comfort and compliance with the medication. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Insomnia is more commonly associated with opioid withdrawal rather than Clonidine use. While Clonidine is used to treat hypertension, it is not typically an adverse effect of the medication.

4. A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever when starting rituximab therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection, which is a potential complication associated with rituximab. Early detection and treatment of infections are important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication's side effects. Therefore, fever is the most crucial symptom to report to healthcare providers.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause dizziness, especially when starting the medication. The nurse should inform the client to change positions slowly to avoid dizziness and falls.

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