Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of individuals who are not immune to Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following individuals?

• A. 24-year-old woman in the third trimester of pregnancy
• B. 12-year-old child who has a severe allergy to neomycin
• C. 2-month-old infant who has no health problems
• D. 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man with essential hypertension. Individuals not immune to Varicella should receive the vaccine if they did not get two doses earlier. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for the Varicella vaccine. Administering the vaccine to pregnant women, individuals with severe neomycin allergies, or infants is contraindicated. Pregnant women should not receive the Varicella vaccine due to the potential risk to the fetus. Severe neomycin allergies are a contraindication because neomycin is present in the vaccine. Infants under 12 months of age are generally not vaccinated against Varicella unless there are specific circumstances or recommendations.

2. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Furosemide
• B. Captopril
• C. Ranolazine
• D. Metoprolol

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients who develop tachycardia, such as in the case of reflex tachycardia induced by Isosorbide Mononitrate, making it the appropriate choice in this scenario. Furosemide (Choice A) is a loop diuretic used for conditions like heart failure and edema, not for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor primarily used for hypertension and heart failure, not for reflex tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used for chronic angina but does not specifically address reflex tachycardia.

3. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. aPTT
• C. INR
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 6.5 mL
• B. 7 mL
• C. 5 mL
• D. 8 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.

5. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Hypertension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can lead to toxicity, which can manifest as various signs and symptoms, including bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect and manage potential toxicity early. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

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