a nurse is caring for a group of clients who are not protected against varicell the nurse should prepare to administer the varicella vaccine at this
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of individuals who are not immune to Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following individuals?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man with essential hypertension. Individuals not immune to Varicella should receive the vaccine if they did not get two doses earlier. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for the Varicella vaccine. Administering the vaccine to pregnant women, individuals with severe neomycin allergies, or infants is contraindicated. Pregnant women should not receive the Varicella vaccine due to the potential risk to the fetus. Severe neomycin allergies are a contraindication because neomycin is present in the vaccine. Infants under 12 months of age are generally not vaccinated against Varicella unless there are specific circumstances or recommendations.

2. A client prescribed Isosorbide Mononitrate for chronic stable Angina develops reflex tachycardia. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-adrenergic blocker, is commonly used to treat hypertension and stable angina pectoris. It is often prescribed to decrease heart rate in clients experiencing tachycardia, including those with reflex tachycardia induced by medications like Isosorbide Mononitrate. Furosemide (Choice A) is a diuretic and is not indicated for reflex tachycardia. Captopril (Choice B) is an ACE inhibitor used for hypertension and heart failure, not tachycardia. Ranolazine (Choice C) is used in chronic angina but does not address tachycardia.

3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Edema. The nurse should monitor the client for edema when receiving imatinib. Imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, can lead to fluid retention and edema as a common adverse effect. This can manifest as swelling in various parts of the body, indicating the need for close monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications related to fluid overload. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not typically associated with imatinib use. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to monitor in a client receiving this medication.

4. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

5. Phenytoin is an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant that has an unlabeled use for:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Phenytoin, an antiarrhythmic and anticonvulsant medication, is also used off-label for treating neuropathic pain. While its primary indications are for managing heart rhythm disorders and seizures, it has shown efficacy in managing neuropathic pain, expanding its clinical utility. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as phenytoin is not commonly used for headaches, cold remedies, or antianxiety purposes.

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