ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Ototoxicity
- C. Hypertension
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Carboplatin is known to cause ototoxicity as a serious adverse effect. It is essential for the nurse to monitor the client for any signs or symptoms of hearing loss or other auditory issues to address them promptly. Incorrect Choices Rationale: A) Hyperglycemia is not a common side effect associated with carboplatin. C) Hypertension is not a typical finding to monitor for specifically related to carboplatin treatment. D) Bradycardia is not a primary concern when monitoring a client on carboplatin.
2. A client is starting therapy with cisplatin. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Nausea
- C. Constipation
- D. Weight gain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tinnitus should be reported by the client as it can be indicative of ototoxicity, an adverse effect associated with cisplatin therapy. Ototoxicity can result in damage to the inner ear structures, leading to hearing problems. Therefore, prompt reporting of tinnitus is essential for early intervention and prevention of potential complications. Nausea, constipation, and weight gain are common side effects of cisplatin but are not typically indicative of serious complications requiring immediate reporting compared to tinnitus.
3. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which preexisting condition can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?
- A. Peptic ulcer disease
- B. Breast cancer
- C. Diabetes mellitus
- D. Schizophrenia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ketamine can produce psychological effects like hallucinations. Patients with schizophrenia may be more prone to experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms when exposed to Ketamine due to its potential to worsen psychotic symptoms. Therefore, schizophrenia can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for the use of Ketamine.
4. A client with type 2 Diabetes Mellitus is starting Repaglinide. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the administration of this medication?
- A. I'll take this medicine with my meals.
- B. I'll take this medicine 30 minutes before I eat.
- C. I'll take this medicine just before I go to bed.
- D. I'll take this medicine as soon as I wake up in the morning.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Repaglinide causes a rapid, short-lived release of insulin. To ensure the insulin is available when food is digested, the client should take this medication 30 minutes before each meal. This timing aligns the medication with the expected postprandial rise in blood glucose levels, optimizing its effectiveness in controlling blood sugar levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Repaglinide with meals, just before bed, or as soon as waking up does not align with the medication's mechanism of action and timing needed for optimal effectiveness.
5. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)
- A. Cough
- B. Dizziness
- C. Decreased libido
- D. B and C
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.
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