ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client is receiving chemotherapy and has a prescription for ondansetron IV for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Tremors
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Ondansetron can cause tremors as an adverse effect. Monitoring for tremors is essential as it can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Hypotension (choice A) and bradycardia (choice B) are not commonly associated with ondansetron. Urinary retention (choice D) is also not a typical adverse effect of ondansetron, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.
2. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is reviewing the medical record of a client who is pregnant and is at her first prenatal visit. Which of the following immunizations may the healthcare professional administer safely to this client?
- A. Varicella vaccine
- B. Rubella vaccine
- C. Inactivated influenza vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During pregnancy, it is safe for women to receive the inactivated influenza vaccine, which is recommended by healthcare providers to protect pregnant individuals from influenza. Vaccination with inactivated influenza vaccine during pregnancy not only provides protection to the pregnant individual but also confers passive immunity to the newborn during the vulnerable early months of life. The Varicella, Rubella, and Measles vaccines are live vaccines and are contraindicated during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of transmission of the live virus to the fetus, which could potentially cause harm.
3. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Avoid salt substitutes.
- B. Take this medication at bedtime.
- C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
- D. Limit your fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.
4. A client has a new prescription for Nitroglycerin to treat angina. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication only when chest pain occurs.
- B. Store the medication in a cool, dry place.
- C. Apply the patch to a different site each time.
- D. Avoid consuming alcohol while taking this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to advise the client to apply the Nitroglycerin patch to a different site each time. This is crucial to prevent skin irritation and ensure consistent absorption of the medication. Rotating application sites is important as it helps maintain the effectiveness of the treatment and reduces the risk of skin reactions. Choice A is incorrect because Nitroglycerin is often used prophylactically to prevent angina episodes rather than just for acute chest pain. Choice B is not relevant to the administration or effectiveness of the medication. Choice D, while generally a good recommendation, is not directly related to the administration of Nitroglycerin.
5. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?
- A. Antiplatelets
- B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Calcium channel blockers
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.
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