ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client is receiving chemotherapy and has a prescription for ondansetron IV for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Tremors
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tremors. Ondansetron can cause tremors as an adverse effect. Monitoring for tremors is essential as it can indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Hypotension (choice A) and bradycardia (choice B) are not commonly associated with ondansetron. Urinary retention (choice D) is also not a typical adverse effect of ondansetron, making choices A, B, and D incorrect in this scenario.
2. A client is receiving treatment with etoposide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Etoposide, a chemotherapeutic agent, commonly causes hypotension as an adverse effect. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of hypotension, such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a drop in blood pressure, to promptly intervene and prevent complications.
3. A client is receiving Enoxaparin for the prevention of deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Massage the injection site after administration.
- B. Administer the medication intramuscularly.
- C. Administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue.
- D. Administer the medication into the deltoid muscle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Enoxaparin, a medication used for preventing deep vein thrombosis, should be administered into the subcutaneous tissue, typically in the abdomen. Administering the medication intramuscularly (Choice B) or into the deltoid muscle (Choice D) is incorrect because Enoxaparin is specifically formulated for subcutaneous administration. Massaging the injection site after administration (Choice A) is contraindicated as it may lead to tissue damage and affect the absorption of the medication. Therefore, the correct action is to administer the medication into the subcutaneous tissue as directed.
4. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
- B. Take the medication 1 hour before planning to go to sleep.
- C. Allow at least 6 hours for sleep when taking zolpidem.
- D. Do not take zolpidem with a bedtime snack.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Zolpidem is classified as Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is important for the client to inform the provider if they plan to become pregnant because the medication may need to be adjusted or changed to ensure the safety of the fetus. This communication allows for appropriate monitoring and adjustments to be made to the treatment plan. Choice B is incorrect because zolpidem should be taken just before going to bed, not specifically 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as zolpidem is a short-acting medication, and it does not require a full 6 hours for sleep. Choice D is incorrect because zolpidem can be taken with or without food, so taking it with a bedtime snack is not contraindicated.
5. Which of the following drugs is associated with Stevens-Johnson syndrome?
- A. Valproic acid
- B. Quinidine
- C. Isoniazid
- D. Ethosuximide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe skin reaction that can be associated with Ethosuximide.
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