Nursing Elites

1. When teaching a client with a new prescription for furosemide, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication in the morning.
• B. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for furosemide, a diuretic, is to take it in the morning to prevent nocturia. Taking it in the morning helps to prevent frequent urination during the night, allowing the client to have uninterrupted sleep. This timing also coincides with the body's natural diuretic response, which is typically more active during the day. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not require avoiding foods high in potassium, taking it on an empty stomach, or limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

2. What is a common side effect that typically occurs with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine as a result of increased vasodilation?

• A. Abdominal cramps
• B. Calf pain
• C. Headache
• D. Blurred vision

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Headache is a common side effect associated with the initial therapy of Nitroglycerine due to its vasodilatory properties. The vasodilation caused by Nitroglycerine leads to relaxation of blood vessels, including those in the head, which can result in headaches. This side effect is considered normal and is often transient, diminishing with continued use of the medication.

3. What is the antidote for Warfarin?

• A. Vitamin D
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin K
• D. Vitamin B6

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Vitamin K is the antidote for Warfarin toxicity as it helps reverse the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, and administering vitamin K can replenish these factors, thereby counteracting the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin. Vitamin D, Vitamin C, and Vitamin B6 do not have the specific mechanism to counteract the anticoagulant effects of Warfarin, making them incorrect choices.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Butorphanol to a client who has a history of substance use disorder. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following information as true regarding Butorphanol?

• A. Butorphanol has a greater risk of abuse than morphine.
• B. Butorphanol causes a higher incidence of respiratory depression than morphine.
• C. Butorphanol cannot be reversed with an opioid antagonist.
• D. Butorphanol can cause abstinence syndrome in opioid-dependent clients.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Butorphanol, an opioid agonist/antagonist, can lead to abstinence syndrome in clients who are opioid-dependent. This syndrome may present with symptoms like abdominal pain, fever, and anxiety. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to consider this risk when administering Butorphanol to clients with a history of substance use disorder. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Butorphanol is less likely to be abused than morphine, causes less respiratory depression than morphine, and can be reversed with an opioid antagonist.

5. A client has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should be included in the discharge teaching?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Avoid consuming grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication with food.
• D. Decrease your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.' Prednisone can lead to potassium depletion, making it important for clients to increase their intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, and spinach to prevent potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because grapefruit juice can interact with certain medications, but it is not a specific concern with Prednisone. Choice C is incorrect as Prednisone can be taken with or without food. Choice D is also incorrect because there is no direct relationship between Prednisone and sodium-rich foods.

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