Nursing Elites

1. A patient is receiving spironolactone for heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can lead to hyperkalemia due to its mechanism of action. Hyperkalemia, or elevated potassium levels, can result in serious cardiac complications and requires immediate medical attention. Therefore, the nurse should promptly report any signs or symptoms of hyperkalemia to prevent potential adverse outcomes in the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because spironolactone is not associated with hypernatremia, hyponatremia, or hypokalemia. Hyperkalemia is the critical finding that the nurse should report in a patient receiving spironolactone.

2. Which drug class has been found to decrease mortality if given within 8 hours of an MI due to a decrease in cardiac workload?

• A. Antiplatelets
• B. Beta-adrenergic blockers
• C. ACE inhibitors
• D. Calcium channel blockers

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Beta-adrenergic blockers have been shown to decrease mortality when administered within 8 hours of a myocardial infarction (MI). They do so by reducing cardiac workload, which helps improve outcomes post-MI. These drugs work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to decreased heart rate, blood pressure, and myocardial oxygen demand, thereby protecting the heart muscle from further damage. This makes them a crucial part of the treatment regimen for acute coronary syndromes like MI.

3. What is a desired outcome of the drug Phenytoin?

• A. Decrease symptoms of PTSD
• B. Resolution of signs of infection
• C. Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation
• D. Prevention or relief of bronchospasm

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Decrease or cessation of seizures without excessive sedation. Phenytoin is primarily used as an antiepileptic medication to manage and prevent seizures. It does not directly impact symptoms of PTSD (Choice A), resolution of signs of infection (Choice B), or prevention or relief of bronchospasm (Choice D). Therefore, the desired outcome of Phenytoin is to control seizures effectively while avoiding excessive sedation.

4. When teaching a client with a prescription for Vancomycin, which instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Expect red man syndrome during treatment.
• B. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• C. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• D. Monitor for hearing loss while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Therefore, it is important for clients to monitor for any changes in their hearing while taking this medication and promptly report any issues to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because red man syndrome is associated with rapid infusion of Vancomycin, not a common side effect during treatment; taking the medication with a full glass of water is a general instruction for many medications but not specific to Vancomycin; and increasing potassium-rich foods is not directly related to Vancomycin therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?

• A. Calcitonin-salmon
• B. Calcium carbonate
• C. Zoledronic acid
• D. Ibandronate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.

Similar Questions