Nursing Elites

1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

2. A healthcare professional is educating a client about the adverse effects of Metformin. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional include?

• A. Lactic acidosis.
• B. Hypoglycemia.
• C. Hyperlipidemia.
• D. Weight gain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but severe side effect of Metformin, particularly in individuals with renal or liver issues. It is crucial for clients taking Metformin to be aware of the symptoms of lactic acidosis, such as muscle pain, weakness, trouble breathing, stomach discomfort, and feeling cold. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Metformin but can occur when combined with other antidiabetic medications. Choice C, hyperlipidemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Metformin. Choice D, weight gain, is not associated with Metformin use; in fact, Metformin is often associated with weight loss or weight neutrality.

3. During an assessment, a male client who has recently started taking Haloperidol is displaying certain symptoms. Which of the following findings should the nurse prioritize in reporting to the provider?

• A. Shuffling gait
• B. Neck spasms
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Impotence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neck spasms are indicative of acute dystonia, a serious side effect of Haloperidol that requires urgent intervention. Immediate reporting to the provider is crucial to address this potentially harmful condition and ensure the client's safety. Shuffling gait, drowsiness, and impotence are important to monitor but do not pose the same level of immediate risk as acute dystonia. Acute dystonia can lead to serious complications if not promptly treated, making it the priority in this scenario.

4. A client is taking Propylthiouracil. For which of the following adverse effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Insomnia
• C. Heat intolerance
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Propylthiouracil is a medication used to treat hyperthyroidism. One of the adverse effects of Propylthiouracil is bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Since the medication works by decreasing thyroid hormone production, it can lead to hypothyroidism as a side effect, causing bradycardia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs and symptoms of bradycardia while taking Propylthiouracil. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because insomnia, heat intolerance, and weight loss are not typically associated adverse effects of Propylthiouracil.

5. What is the first type of medication prescribed to prevent angina pain for a client?

• A. Beta blockers
• B. Alpha blockers
• C. Calcium channel blockers
• D. Organic nitrates

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta blockers are the first-line medication prescribed to prevent angina pain. They work by reducing the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. This helps in preventing angina attacks by improving blood flow to the heart. Alpha blockers, calcium channel blockers, and organic nitrates are also used in angina treatment but are typically considered after beta blockers.

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