a nurse is preparing to perform a follow up assessment on a client who takes chlorpromazine for the treatment of schizophrenia the nurse should expect
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

2. When administering digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient, the healthcare provider observes various signs and symptoms of an overdose. Which of the following should the healthcare provider give to reverse digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Digibind, also known as Digoxin immune Fab, is the specific antidote used to treat digoxin toxicity. It works by binding to digoxin in the body, forming a complex that can be excreted by the kidneys, thereby reversing the toxic effects of digoxin overdose. Naloxone is used for opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. Vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarin overdose. Flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose, not digoxin toxicity.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

4. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is that Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove the contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid any potential absorption of the medication into the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine is not known to stain contacts, cause pupil constriction, or slow heart rate.

5. A client receives a new prescription for NRTIs for HIV treatment. Which statement should the nurse include during teaching about these medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: NRTIs inhibit the enzyme reverse transcriptase, essential for HIV replication. By preventing this process, viral replication is hindered, ultimately reducing the viral load in the body. Option A correctly explains the mechanism of action of NRTIs in treating HIV infection. Choices B, C, and D describe mechanisms of action that do not align with how NRTIs work in HIV treatment. B is incorrect because NRTIs do not target protein synthesis within the HIV cell. C is incorrect as NRTIs do not affect the cell wall of the HIV virus. D is incorrect because NRTIs do not block HIV entry into cells.

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