Nursing Elites

1. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

2. A client with chronic renal disease is receiving therapy with epoetin alfa. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse review for an indication of a therapeutic effect of the medication?

• A. The leukocyte count
• B. The platelet count
• C. The hematocrit (Hct)
• D. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: The hematocrit (Hct). Monitoring the hematocrit is essential to assess the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa because this medication stimulates red blood cell production in clients with chronic renal disease. The leukocyte count (choice A) and platelet count (choice B) are not directly affected by epoetin alfa therapy. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) (choice D) is a non-specific marker of inflammation and is not used to monitor the therapeutic effect of epoetin alfa.

3. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr indicates magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Choice A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, is a normal finding with magnesium sulfate therapy. Choice B, 2+ pedal edema, is expected in clients with preeclampsia but does not indicate magnesium sulfate toxicity. Choice D, respirations 12/min, is within the normal range and not a concerning finding related to magnesium sulfate administration.

4. What should a patient avoid while taking Angiotensin-converting enzymes?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Foods high in potassium
• C. Foods high in sodium
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Patients taking Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors should avoid salt substitutes because they can contain potassium chloride, which may lead to hyperkalemia. It is important to restrict potassium-rich foods while on ACE inhibitors, but the primary concern with salt substitutes is their potassium content.

5. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum sodium
• C. Serum calcium
• D. Serum magnesium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing potassium excretion through the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to detect hyperkalemia early and prevent adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril is not known to significantly impact sodium, calcium, or magnesium levels in the same way it affects potassium levels.

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