a nurse is reviewing a clients health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemi which of the following medications shou
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ATI Pharmacology Quizlet

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

2. While providing an Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, the patient asks what the action of the drug is. As a healthcare provider, you explain that the action of an ACE inhibitor is:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: ACE inhibitors lower blood pressure by blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to vasoconstrictor angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by inhibiting its formation, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload on the heart. Choice B is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of diuretics, not ACE inhibitors. Choice C is incorrect as it refers to the action of beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as it describes the mechanism of action of antidiabetic medications, not ACE inhibitors.

3. A client is receiving discharge teaching for Metronidazole prescribed for an infection. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Alcohol should be avoided while taking Metronidazole because it can lead to a disulfiram-like reaction, causing severe nausea and vomiting. It is important for the client to understand this to prevent adverse reactions and ensure the effectiveness of the medication in treating the infection. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Metronidazole with food is recommended to decrease gastrointestinal upset, and there is no specific need to increase or avoid dairy products while taking this medication.

4. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker known to cause peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it can indicate the development of this side effect. Choice A, Tachycardia, is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Choice D, Hypertension, is the condition Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for allopurinol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed allopurinol is to drink 2 liters of water daily. This helps reduce the risk of kidney stones, a potential side effect of allopurinol use. Adequate hydration is essential to prevent kidney stone formation and maintain kidney function while taking this medication.

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