Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's health record and notes that the client is experiencing episodes of hypokalemia. Which of the following medications should the healthcare provider identify as a cause of the client's hypokalemia?

• A. Captopril
• B. Lisinopril
• C. Furosemide
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts on the kidneys to increase urine production. This increased urine output can lead to the excessive excretion of potassium, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels and considering supplementation may be necessary when a patient is on furosemide to prevent or manage hypokalemia.

2. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate the effectiveness of Clopidogrel therapy and help prevent adverse effects related to clotting or bleeding. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose levels is not directly related to the action or side effects of Clopidogrel.

3. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

• A. Avoid salt substitutes.
• B. Take this medication at bedtime.
• C. Avoid foods high in potassium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.

4. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the infusion.
• B. Call the provider.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Auscultate breath sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.

5. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

• A. NSAIDs
• B. Cardiac glycosides
• C. Beta blockers
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

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