Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take sucralfate with meals.
• B. Take sucralfate 1 hr before meals.
• C. Take sucralfate with antacids.
• D. Take sucralfate 2 hours after meals.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking sucralfate is 1 hour before meals. This timing allows sucralfate to effectively coat the stomach lining and provide a protective barrier against gastric acid, helping to prevent ulcers.

3. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.

4. A healthcare professional in a provider's clinic is caring for a client who reports erectile dysfunction and requests a prescription for sildenafil. Which of the following medications currently prescribed for the client is a contraindication to taking sildenafil?

• A. Isosorbide
• B. Phenytoin
• C. Metronidazole
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sildenafil is contraindicated with nitrates like isosorbide due to the risk of severe hypotension. Isosorbide is a nitrate that can potentiate the hypotensive effects of sildenafil, leading to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. Therefore, it is essential to avoid concurrent use of isosorbide and sildenafil to prevent adverse effects. Phenytoin, metronidazole, and prednisone do not have significant interactions with sildenafil and are not contraindicated when used together.

5. A client has a new prescription for Brimonidine ophthalmic drops and wears soft contact lenses. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. This medication can stain your contacts.
• B. This medication can cause your pupils to constrict.
• C. This medication can absorb into your contacts.
• D. This medication can slow your heart rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Brimonidine can absorb into soft contact lenses. To prevent this, the client should remove their contacts, instill the medication, and wait at least 15 minutes before putting the contacts back in to avoid potential absorption of the medication by the lenses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Brimonidine's main concern with contact lenses is its absorption into the lenses rather than staining contacts, causing pupil constriction, or affecting heart rate.

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