ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?
- A. Diaphoresis
- B. Epistaxis
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Alopecia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Prednisone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of vitamin
- B. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone can lead to bone loss, so clients should increase their intake of vitamin D and calcium to help maintain bone health.
3. A client is taking Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor, to treat HIV infection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Increased TSH level
- B. Decreased ALT level
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Hyperlipidemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hyperlipidemia. Ritonavir, a protease inhibitor used in HIV treatment, can lead to hyperlipidemia, characterized by increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels. Monitoring lipid levels is crucial to identify and manage this potential adverse effect. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Ritonavir is not known to cause an increased TSH level, decreased ALT level, or hypoglycemia as adverse effects.
4. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?
- A. Flumazenil
- B. Methylene blue
- C. Deferoxamine
- D. Alkalinize urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.
5. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic known to cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia by assessing their electrolyte levels. Choice B, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is more likely to cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. Choice C, Hypercalcemia, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause increased calcium levels. Choice D, Hypoglycemia, is also incorrect as it is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide.
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