Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving Cefotaxime IV for a severe infection. Which finding indicates a potentially serious adverse reaction to this medication that the nurse should report to the provider?

• A. Diaphoresis
• B. Epistaxis
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Alopecia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Diarrhea is an adverse effect of cefotaxime and other cephalosporins that requires reporting to the provider. Severe diarrhea might indicate the client has developed antibiotic-associated pseudomembranous colitis, which could be life-threatening. Diaphoresis, epistaxis, and alopecia are not typically associated with cefotaxime use and are less likely to indicate a serious adverse reaction necessitating immediate reporting.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

3. A client is starting therapy with docetaxel. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Flushing
• B. Dyspnea
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dyspnea. The nurse should instruct the client to report dyspnea because it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect of docetaxel. Dyspnea may suggest a potential serious condition that needs prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications. Flushing (choice A) is more commonly associated with other medications or conditions and is not a common side effect of docetaxel. Hyperglycemia (choice C) and tinnitus (choice D) are also not typically associated with docetaxel therapy and are not priority findings that the nurse should instruct the client to report.

4. How do ACE inhibitors work?

• A. Block the vasoconstrictor and aldosterone effects of angiotensin II at the receptor site
• B. Block stimulation of beta 1 and beta 2 at the receptor sites
• C. Block the conversion of angiotensin I to the vasoconstrictor angiotensin II
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor, and by blocking its production, ACE inhibitors help dilate blood vessels, reduce blood pressure, and decrease the workload of the heart. Choice A is incorrect because it describes the mechanism of action of angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), not ACE inhibitors. Choice B is incorrect as it describes beta-blockers, not ACE inhibitors. Choice D is incorrect as ACE inhibitors do have a specific mechanism of action.

5. A client is being discharged and will start long-term oral prednisone for chronic asthma treatment. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Nervousness
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Weight gain is an adverse effect of oral prednisone due to sodium and water retention, which leads to fluid retention. This can be monitored by tracking weight changes. Nervousness (Choice B) is not a common adverse effect of prednisone. Bradycardia (Choice C) is not typically associated with prednisone use; in fact, tachycardia can be more common. Constipation (Choice D) is not a prominent adverse effect of prednisone.

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