a nurse is caring for a client who is receiving heparin therapy the nurse should monitor which of the following laboratory values to evaluate the effe
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The corrected answer is B: aPTT. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory value used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. The aPTT should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level to ensure therapeutic anticoagulation. Monitoring aPTT helps healthcare providers adjust heparin doses to achieve the desired anticoagulant effects and prevent complications such as bleeding or clotting. Choice A, PT (prothrombin time), is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C, INR (international normalized ratio), is also used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D, platelet count, is important for assessing the risk of bleeding, but it does not directly monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

2. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate the effectiveness of Clopidogrel therapy and help prevent adverse effects related to clotting or bleeding. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose levels is not directly related to the action or side effects of Clopidogrel.

3. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.

4. What instruction should the healthcare provider include to minimize an adverse effect of Clomipramine for OCD in an adolescent client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear sunglasses when outdoors.' To minimize the anticholinergic effect of Clomipramine, the client should wear sunglasses when outdoors to reduce photophobia. This adverse effect is common with tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) use. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Checking temperature daily, timing of medication intake, or adding extra calories to the diet are not directly related to minimizing adverse effects of Clomipramine.

5. What nursing interventions should you perform when a patient is on Albuterol? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct nursing interventions to perform when a patient is on Albuterol include assessing the patient's lung sounds, pulse, and blood pressure before administering the medication to monitor for cardiovascular side effects like increased heart rate. Additionally, it is crucial to observe for paradoxical bronchospasms, a rare but serious adverse reaction where the medication causes a worsening of bronchospasm instead of relief. Monitoring for changes in behavior is not directly related to Albuterol administration and is not a standard nursing intervention for patients receiving this medication, making choice B incorrect. Therefore, the correct answer is D as it includes the essential nursing actions for patients on Albuterol.

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