ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. The client has a history of hypertension.
- B. The client has a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL.
- C. The client has a history of chronic kidney disease.
- D. The client has a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chronic kidney disease is a contraindication for the use of Epoetin Alfa because it can worsen hypertension, increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and lead to adverse outcomes. Epoetin Alfa is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, but in the presence of chronic kidney disease, it can exacerbate hypertension and contribute to cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the contraindication of Epoetin Alfa in the presence of chronic kidney disease.
2. Which of the following medications is a bronchodilator?
- A. Albuterol
- B. Omeprazole
- C. Ondansetron
- D. Senna
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Albuterol is classified as a bronchodilator, which is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma by relaxing the muscles in the airways and increasing airflow to the lungs. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production, while ondansetron is an anti-nausea medication, and senna is a laxative.
3. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hyperglycemia
- C. Ototoxicity
- D. Hemorrhagic cystitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.
4. What are the actions of the drug metformin?
- A. Decreases hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption
- B. Increases sensitivity to insulin
- C. Short-term sedation
- D. Both A and B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Metformin has dual actions by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption, which helps in reducing blood glucose levels. Additionally, it increases sensitivity to insulin, aiding in its proper utilization within the body. Choice A is correct as metformin acts by decreasing hepatic glucose production and intestinal glucose absorption. Choice B is also correct as metformin increases sensitivity to insulin. Choice C, short-term sedation, is incorrect as metformin is not known for causing sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is D because metformin performs both of these actions.
5. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Check the client's vital signs.
- B. Request a consult with a dietitian.
- C. Suggest that the client rests before eating the meal.
- D. Request an order for an antiemetic.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.
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