ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with a new prescription for Epoetin Alfa. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. The client has a history of hypertension.
- B. The client has a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dL.
- C. The client has a history of chronic kidney disease.
- D. The client has a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Chronic kidney disease is a contraindication for the use of Epoetin Alfa because it can worsen hypertension, increase the risk of cardiovascular events, and lead to adverse outcomes. Epoetin Alfa is used to treat anemia by stimulating red blood cell production, but in the presence of chronic kidney disease, it can exacerbate hypertension and contribute to cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the contraindication of Epoetin Alfa in the presence of chronic kidney disease.
2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Weight gain
- D. Insomnia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can reduce saliva production, leading to dry mouth. To alleviate this symptom, the client should be advised to increase fluid intake or use sugar-free gum or candy. Monitoring for dry mouth is important to prevent complications such as oral health issues. Drowsiness, weight gain, and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine but are less common compared to dry mouth. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for dry mouth as it's a more prevalent adverse effect associated with this medication.
3. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fever
- C. Urinary frequency
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.
4. Which of the following is not a known effect of the drug Clozapine?
- A. Agranulocytosis
- B. Antipsychotic
- C. Used for Schizophrenia
- D. Hyperactivity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clozapine is associated with side effects like agranulocytosis (a serious blood condition), sedation (not hyperactivity), and is used as an antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia. Hyperactivity is not a typical effect of Clozapine, making it the correct answer in this context.
5. A client is taking lisinopril. Which of the following outcomes indicates a therapeutic effect of the medication?
- A. Decreased blood pressure
- B. Increase in HDL cholesterol
- C. Prevention of bipolar manic episodes
- D. Improved sexual function
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The therapeutic effect of lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is indicated by a decrease in blood pressure. Lisinopril works by relaxing blood vessels, leading to a reduction in blood pressure. Monitoring and achieving a decrease in blood pressure is a key outcome when managing hypertension with lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lisinopril is not intended to increase HDL cholesterol, prevent bipolar manic episodes, or improve sexual function. Therefore, the correct outcome indicating the therapeutic effect of lisinopril is a decrease in blood pressure.
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