Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Edema
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.

2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can potentiate its effects, potentially causing adverse reactions like hypotension and bradycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Verapamil at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its metabolism or side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to Verapamil use. Increasing potassium-rich foods intake is not necessary with Verapamil and could potentially lead to hyperkalemia in some cases.

3. When administering Amitriptyline to a client experiencing cancer pain, for which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Decreased appetite
• B. Explosive diarrhea
• C. Decreased pulse rate
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Orthostatic hypotension.' When administering Amitriptyline, the nurse should monitor for orthostatic hypotension. This condition can occur due to the drug's anticholinergic effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up. Symptoms may include dizziness, lightheadedness, and an increased risk of falls. Monitoring for signs of orthostatic hypotension is crucial to prevent complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as decreased appetite, explosive diarrhea, and decreased pulse rate are not typically associated with the administration of Amitriptyline.

4. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects on the heart. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia and take appropriate actions if necessary. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected finding with Diltiazem use. Hypertension (Choice C) is actually a condition that Diltiazem is used to treat. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of Diltiazem.

5. A client is starting therapy with Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action in slowing down the heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases to prevent complications related to bradycardia.

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