ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A client has a new prescription for Nifedipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for swelling in the lower extremities, as it indicates the onset of edema. Hypertension is typically treated with Nifedipine and is not an adverse effect of the medication. Hyperglycemia and bradycardia are not commonly associated with Nifedipine use. Therefore, the correct adverse effect to monitor for when a client is prescribed Nifedipine is edema.
2. A client with Graves' disease is being taught about her prescribed medications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the use of Propranolol in the treatment of Graves' disease?
- A. Propranolol helps increase blood flow to my thyroid gland.
- B. Propranolol is used to prevent excess glucose in my blood.
- C. Propranolol will decrease my tremors and fast heart rate.
- D. Propranolol promotes a decrease in thyroid hormone in my body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol is a beta-adrenergic antagonist that helps decrease heart rate and control tremors in individuals with Graves' disease. It does not increase blood flow to the thyroid gland (choice A), prevent excess glucose in the blood (choice B), or directly decrease thyroid hormone levels in the body (choice D). Propranolol's primary role in Graves' disease is to alleviate symptoms like tremors and fast heart rate by blocking the effects of excessive thyroid hormone, rather than reducing the actual levels of thyroid hormone in the body.
3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Diltiazem IV to a client who has atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report immediately?
- A. Bradycardia.
- B. Hypertension.
- C. Shortness of breath.
- D. Tachycardia.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is bradycardia. Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Bradycardia should be reported immediately because it can result in serious cardiac complications, especially in a client with atrial fibrillation. Hypertension, shortness of breath, and tachycardia are not typically associated with Diltiazem administration and would not be immediate concerns in this scenario.
4. A client has a new prescription for Ondansetron for nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication one hour before chemotherapy.
- B. You may experience a headache while taking this medication.
- C. Increase your intake of potassium while taking this medication.
- D. This medication may cause temporary hearing loss.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include is that the client may experience a headache while taking Ondansetron. Headache is a common side effect of this medication, and clients need to be informed about this potential adverse reaction to enhance their understanding and management of side effects. The other statements are incorrect because Ondansetron is usually taken 30 minutes before chemotherapy, not one hour before (choice A). There is no specific need to increase potassium intake while taking Ondansetron (choice C), and temporary hearing loss is not a common side effect associated with this medication (choice D).
5. A client with breast cancer is being taught by a nurse about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding.
- B. You should avoid contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines.
- C. You should take aspirin for minor aches and pains.
- D. You should consume a diet low in protein to reduce the risk of renal damage.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia. Chemotherapy can decrease platelet counts, leading to an increased risk of bleeding. Using a soft-bristled toothbrush can help prevent gum bleeding and oral trauma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines is crucial to prevent infections in immunocompromised clients. Aspirin should be avoided due to its blood-thinning effects that can increase the risk of bleeding. A diet low in protein is not recommended as cancer clients often require adequate protein intake for healing and recovery.
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