ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A patient on a medical-surgical unit administers a hypnotic medication to an older adult client at 2100. The next morning, the client is drowsy and wants to sleep instead of eating breakfast. Which of the following factors should the nurse identify as a possible reason for the client's drowsiness?
- A. Reduced cardiac function
- B. First-pass effect
- C. Reduced hepatic function
- D. Increased gastric motility
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In older adults, reduced hepatic function can lead to prolonged effects of medications metabolized by the liver. This prolonged effect may result in drowsiness the next morning. Adjusting the dosage of the hypnotic medication may be necessary for this client. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Reduced cardiac function (Choice A) is not typically associated with drowsiness due to medication effects. The first-pass effect (Choice B) relates to the initial metabolism of a drug in the liver before reaching systemic circulation, which is not directly linked to drowsiness the next morning. Increased gastric motility (Choice D) does not commonly cause drowsiness as described in the scenario.
2. A client has been prescribed diltiazem (Cardizem) and asks the nurse what type of drug this is. Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?
- A. “A beta blocker.”
- B. “A sodium channel blocker.”
- C. “An alpha blocker.”
- D. “A calcium channel blocker.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Diltiazem (Cardizem) belongs to the class of drugs known as calcium channel blockers. These medications work by blocking calcium from entering the muscle cells of the heart and blood vessels, leading to relaxation of the blood vessels and reduced workload on the heart. This helps in lowering blood pressure and improving blood flow. It is crucial for the nurse to provide accurate information to the client about the type of drug prescribed to ensure understanding and compliance with the treatment plan.
3. When administering subcutaneous enoxaparin 40 mg using a prefilled syringe of Enoxaparin 40 mg/0.4 mL to an adult client following hip arthroplasty, what action should the nurse plan to take?
- A. Expel any air bubbles from the prefilled syringe before injecting.
- B. Insert the needle completely into the client's tissue.
- C. Administer the injection in the client's thigh.
- D. Aspirate carefully after inserting the needle into the client's skin.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When administering enoxaparin via a prefilled syringe for deep subcutaneous injection, the nurse should insert the needle completely into the client's tissue. This action ensures proper delivery of the medication into the subcutaneous layer, promoting optimal therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to expel air bubbles from a prefilled syringe. Choice C is incorrect as enoxaparin is typically administered in the abdomen for subcutaneous injections. Choice D is incorrect as aspiration is not recommended for subcutaneous injections to avoid trauma or damage to tissues.
4. Which of the following conditions is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide?
- A. CHF
- B. HTN
- C. Nephritis
- D. Hypercalciuria
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nephritis is not commonly treated with Hydrochlorothiazide. Hydrochlorothiazide is primarily used for managing hypertension (HTN) and congestive heart failure (CHF) by reducing blood pressure and fluid retention. It is not a standard treatment for nephritis, which involves inflammation of the kidneys. Hypercalciuria, characterized by excessive calcium excretion in the urine, is not typically treated with Hydrochlorothiazide either.
5. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about Terbutaline. Which of the following statements by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?
- A. This medication will stop my contractions.
- B. This medication will prevent vaginal bleeding.
- C. This medication will promote blood flow to my baby.
- D. This medication will increase my prostaglandin production.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Terbutaline works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors, leading to uterine smooth muscle relaxation and stopping contractions. It is commonly used to delay preterm labor. Choice B is incorrect because Terbutaline is not used to prevent vaginal bleeding. Choice C is incorrect because Terbutaline's primary action is not related to promoting blood flow to the baby. Choice D is incorrect because Terbutaline does not increase prostaglandin production; instead, it works by blocking beta2-adrenergic receptors.
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