Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough.
• B. Hyperglycemia.
• C. Weight gain.
• D. Increased urination.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is a persistent dry cough. This occurs due to the accumulation of bradykinin. It is essential for the client to monitor for this side effect and report it to their healthcare provider promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hyperglycemia, weight gain, and increased urination are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

2. What is the classification of Ondansetron?

• A. Antihypertensive
• B. Antiarrhythmic
• C. Antiemetic
• D. Antiulcer agent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ondansetron is classified as an antiemetic. It is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, especially in patients undergoing chemotherapy or surgery. Choice A, Antihypertensive, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to treat high blood pressure. Choice B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not used to manage heart rhythm abnormalities. Choice D, Antiulcer agent, is incorrect as Ondansetron is not primarily indicated for treating ulcers.

3. A client has a new prescription for Hydroxychloroquine to treat Lupus Erythematosus. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Eye damage
• D. Drowsiness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Eye damage.' Hydroxychloroquine can cause severe adverse effects on the eyes, such as retinopathy, which can lead to permanent visual impairment. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential adverse effect and report any changes in vision promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because although nausea, hair loss, and drowsiness can occur with Hydroxychloroquine, they are not as severe or critical as the risk of eye damage.

4. What is pharmacodynamics?

• A. The medical reference summarizing standards of drug purity, strength, and directions for synthesis
• B. The drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions
• C. The maximum response that a drug can produce
• D. Movements of the drugs throughout the body

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pharmacodynamics refers to the drug's actions at receptor sites and the physiological, chemical, and behavioral effects produced by these actions. It involves understanding how drugs interact with the body at the molecular level to produce their effects, including mechanisms of action, receptor binding, and downstream physiological responses. Choice A is incorrect because it describes pharmacopeia, which is a reference book containing standards for drugs. Choice C refers to efficacy, which is the maximum effect a drug can produce. Choice D describes pharmacokinetics, which focuses on the movement of drugs within the body.

5. While caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy, which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. PT
• B. INR
• C. aPTT
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) when caring for a client receiving Heparin therapy. The aPTT reflects the intrinsic pathway of the clotting cascade and is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin, which primarily affects this pathway by potentiating antithrombin III. Monitoring the aPTT helps ensure that the client's blood is within the therapeutic range to prevent thrombus formation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are used to monitor Warfarin therapy, not Heparin. Platelet count is important in assessing for thrombocytopenia but is not a specific indicator of Heparin therapy effectiveness.

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