ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?
- A. Within 30 min/unit
- B. Within 60 min/unit
- C. Within 2 hr/unit
- D. Within 4 hr/unit
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.
2. A client is prescribed Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as a sign of potential toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypocalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin can lead to toxicity, which can manifest as various signs and symptoms, including bradycardia. Monitoring the client's heart rate closely is crucial to detect and manage potential toxicity early. Hypertension, hyperglycemia, and hypocalcemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity; therefore, they are incorrect choices.
3. A nurse is providing instructions to a client who has a prescription for Amoxicillin and Clarithromycin to treat a Peptic Ulcer. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Take these medications with foo '
- B. These medications can turn your stool black.'
- C. These medications can cause photosensitivity.'
- D. The purpose of these medications is to decrease the pH of gastric juices in the stomach.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take these medications with food to reduce GI disturbances.
4. A client with Schizophrenia is taking Risperidone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. Increase your intake of snacks to prevent weight loss.
- B. Notify the provider if you develop breast enlargement.
- C. Be aware of the possibility of mild seizures while taking this medication.
- D. Expect an increase in libido when taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to the client taking Risperidone for Schizophrenia is to notify the provider if they develop breast enlargement. Risperidone can lead to an increase in prolactin levels, causing gynecomastia (breast enlargement) and galactorrhea. Therefore, it is crucial for the client to report these manifestations to the healthcare provider for appropriate management. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Increasing snack intake to prevent weight loss is not a specific concern related to Risperidone. Mild seizures are not a common side effect of Risperidone, so this instruction is unnecessary. Risperidone is more likely to cause sexual side effects like decreased libido rather than an increase.
5. A client is starting therapy with Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its mechanism of action in slowing down the heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases to prevent complications related to bradycardia.
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