a nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 ml of pooled platelets for a client who has severe thrombocytopeni the nurse should plan to ad
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

2. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.

3. A client has a new prescription for radioactive iodine to treat Hyperthyroidism. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client undergoes radioactive iodine treatment for hyperthyroidism, they can emit radiation for a short time. To prevent radiation exposure to others, especially pregnant women, infants, and small children, clients should avoid close contact for about 1 week following therapy. This precaution is essential to protect vulnerable individuals from potential harm. Choice A is incorrect because a metallic taste in the mouth is not a common side effect of radioactive iodine treatment. Choice C is incorrect because administering iodine solution using a straw is not a standard practice in this treatment. Choice D is incorrect because taking thyroid replacement medication for 3 weeks after treatment is not a typical instruction associated with radioactive iodine therapy for hyperthyroidism.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a young adult client with a serum calcium level of 8.8 mg/dL. Which of the following medications should the professional anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's serum calcium level is below the expected reference range, indicating hypocalcemia. Calcium carbonate, an oral form of calcium, is used to increase serum calcium levels to the expected range in cases of hypocalcemia. It helps correct the deficiency by supplementing calcium in the body.

5. A client is prescribed Diltiazem. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can lead to bradycardia as an adverse effect due to its negative chronotropic and dromotropic effects on the heart. The nurse should monitor the client's heart rate regularly to detect any signs of bradycardia and take appropriate actions if necessary. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected finding with Diltiazem use. Hypertension (Choice C) is actually a condition that Diltiazem is used to treat. Hyperkalemia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of Diltiazem.

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