a nurse is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 ml of pooled platelets for a client who has severe thrombocytopeni the nurse should plan to ad

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

A. Within 30 min/unit
B. Within 60 min/unit
C. Within 2 hr/unit
D. Within 4 hr/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

2. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Apply the patch to a different location each day.
B. Remove the patch every night before bedtime.
C. Massage the patch area gently after application.
D. Shave the area before applying the patch.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using nitroglycerin transdermal patches is to remove the patch every night before bedtime. This practice helps prevent tolerance to the medication's effects. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin can result in the body becoming less responsive to its therapeutic effects over time, reducing its efficacy in managing the prescribed condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Applying the patch to a different location each day does not address the issue of tolerance. Massaging the patch area gently after application is not recommended as it may alter drug absorption. Shaving the area before applying the patch is unnecessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation.

3. At what amount does Acetaminophen stop effectively controlling pain?

A. Over 1,000 mg
B. 750 mg
C. Over 1,500 mg
D. 150 mg

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Acetaminophen is known to lose its effectiveness in controlling pain beyond a dosage of 1,000 mg. Taking more than 1,000 mg will not provide additional pain relief but can increase the risk of adverse effects. Choice B (750 mg) is incorrect because this amount is within the typical recommended dose range for Acetaminophen. Choice C (Over 1,500 mg) is incorrect as it suggests a higher dose than the point at which Acetaminophen starts to lose its effectiveness. Choice D (150 mg) is too low a dose to effectively control pain for most adults.

4. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?

A. Complete blood count (CBC).
B. Serum creatinine.
C. Serum potassium.
D. Serum glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Methotrexate?

A. Sarcomas
B. Leukemias
C. Ectopic pregnancy
D. Rheumatic fever

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Methotrexate is not typically used to treat rheumatic fever, which is more commonly managed with antibiotics to eradicate the underlying infection. Methotrexate is commonly used in the treatment of conditions like sarcomas, leukemias, and ectopic pregnancies due to its anti-inflammatory and anti-cancer properties.