Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

• A. Within 30 min/unit
• B. Within 60 min/unit
• C. Within 2 hr/unit
• D. Within 4 hr/unit

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

2. A healthcare provider is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Bisacodyl suppositories. Which of the following information should the provider include?

• A. Expect results within 15 to 60 minutes.
• B. Insert the suppository as directed by the healthcare provider.
• C. Keep the suppository at room temperature.
• D. Expect rectal burning.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about Bisacodyl suppositories, it is important to include information about the common side effects. Rectal burning is a frequent side effect that can occur after using Bisacodyl suppositories, so the client should be informed to expect this discomfort. The onset of action for Bisacodyl suppositories is typically within 15 to 60 minutes, so the client should expect results relatively quickly, not in 6 to 12 hours. It is essential to follow the healthcare provider's instructions on how to insert the suppository correctly. Keeping the suppository at room temperature is sufficient; refrigeration is not required. Therefore, option D is the correct choice as it addresses a common side effect and prepares the client for potential discomfort. Options A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not focus on a significant side effect, proper administration, or storage requirements.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

• A. If the medication causes an upset stomach, take an antacid at the same time.
• B. Increase your daily fluid intake while taking this medication.
• C. This medication can cause photophobia, so avoid direct sunlight exposure.
• D. You should report any tendon discomfort you experience while taking this medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.

4. A client has been taking Sertraline for the past 2 days. Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse to the possibility that the client is developing Serotonin syndrome?

• A. Bruising
• B. Fever
• C. Abdominal pain
• D. Rash

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Fever is a key symptom of serotonin syndrome, a potentially serious condition that can occur with the use of SSRIs like Sertraline. Serotonin syndrome is characterized by excessive levels of serotonin in the body, leading to symptoms such as fever, agitation, confusion, tremors, and sweating. If a client on Sertraline presents with fever, the nurse should consider the possibility of serotonin syndrome and take appropriate actions such as notifying the healthcare provider and monitoring the client closely. Bruising, abdominal pain, and rash are not typically associated with serotonin syndrome and are more likely to be indicative of other conditions or side effects.

5. A client has a new prescription for Zolpidem. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Notify the provider if you plan to become pregnant.
• B. Take the medication 1 hr before you plan to go to sleep.
• C. Allow at least 6 hr for sleep when taking Zolpidem.
• D. To increase the effectiveness of Zolpidem, take it with a bedtime snack.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Zolpidem is classified under Pregnancy Risk Category C. It is essential for the client to inform the provider if she plans to become pregnant as Zolpidem use during pregnancy may pose risks to the fetus. This precaution allows for appropriate assessment and possible adjustments to the treatment plan to ensure the safety of both the client and the developing baby. Choice B is incorrect because Zolpidem is usually taken immediately before bedtime, not 1 hour before. Choice C is incorrect as Zolpidem is known for its quick onset of action, and the client does not need to allocate a specific amount of time for sleep. Choice D is incorrect as taking Zolpidem with food, especially a bedtime snack, may delay its onset of action.

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