Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is not directly related to drug toxicity of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Headaches
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Dizziness
• D. Projectile vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headaches, tachycardia, and dizziness are common side effects of nitroglycerin due to its vasodilatory properties. Projectile vomiting is not typically associated with nitroglycerin toxicity, making it the correct answer. Therefore, option D is the correct choice.

2. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?

• A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
• B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
• C. Varicella vaccine
• D. Rotavirus vaccine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.

3. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
• D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.

4. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
• B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
• C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
• D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• D. Decrease your intake of protein.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A). Prednisone can cause potassium depletion, so clients should increase their intake of foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Potassium-rich foods help maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as muscle weakness and irregular heartbeats. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products (Choice B) or avoiding foods high in vitamin K (Choice C) are not specifically related to Prednisone therapy. Decreasing protein intake (Choice D) is also not necessary in this case.

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