ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Quizlet
1. A client with increased liver enzymes is taking herbal supplements. Which of the following herbal supplements should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Glucosamine
- B. Saw palmetto
- C. Kava
- D. St. John's wort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chronic use or high doses of kava have been associated with liver damage, including severe liver failure. Therefore, the nurse should report the client's use of kava to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
2. When teaching a client with schizophrenia strategies to cope with anticholinergic effects of Fluphenazine, which of the following should the nurse suggest to minimize anticholinergic effects?
- A. Take the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia.
- B. Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.
- C. Use cooling measures to decrease fever.
- D. Take an antacid to relieve nausea.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Chew sugarless gum to moisten the mouth.' Chewing sugarless gum can help alleviate dry mouth, which is a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Dry mouth can be uncomfortable and affect the client's oral health. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address anticholinergic effects. Taking the medication in the morning to prevent insomnia (Option A) is unrelated to anticholinergic effects. Using cooling measures to decrease fever (Option C) is not a common anticholinergic effect of Fluphenazine. Taking an antacid to relieve nausea (Option D) does not specifically target anticholinergic effects.
3. Which drug classes are NOT typically used to treat angina?
- A. Calcium channel blockers
- B. Organic nitrates
- C. Alpha blockers
- D. Beta blockers
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Angina is primarily treated with calcium channel blockers, organic nitrates, and beta blockers. Alpha blockers are not commonly used in the treatment of angina. Calcium channel blockers help dilate blood vessels, decreasing the workload on the heart. Organic nitrates relax and widen blood vessels, improving blood flow and reducing the heart's workload. Beta blockers reduce the heart rate and blood pressure, decreasing the heart's demand for oxygen. Alpha blockers are more commonly used to treat conditions like hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can lead to severe sedation when administered concurrently with an opioid like Fentanyl due to their additive central nervous system depressant effects. This interaction can potentiate respiratory depression and other CNS effects, increasing the risk of adverse outcomes.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Metformin to treat type 2 diabetes. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional identify as placing the client at risk for lactic acidosis?
- A. Metformin
- B. Metoprolol
- C. Lisinopril
- D. Insulin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Metformin is known to have a risk of causing lactic acidosis, particularly in clients with renal impairment or predisposing conditions. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use that can be life-threatening. Metoprolol, Lisinopril, and Insulin do not have a known association with lactic acidosis. Healthcare professionals should monitor clients prescribed metformin carefully, especially those with risk factors, to detect and manage lactic acidosis promptly.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access