Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a different site each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime each day.
• C. Apply the patch over an area with little or no hair.
• D. Keep the patch on for 24 hours at a time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nitroglycerin transdermal patch is to remove the patch each day, usually at bedtime, to prevent tolerance. This practice allows for a nitrate-free interval, reducing the risk of developing tolerance to the medication. Applying the patch to a different site each day (choice A) is not necessary as long as the skin is clean and rotated to avoid skin irritation. Applying the patch over an area with little or no hair (choice C) does not impact the effectiveness of the medication. Keeping the patch on for 24 hours at a time (choice D) can lead to tolerance, which is why the patch should be removed daily.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health history of a client who is starting therapy with tamoxifen. The healthcare provider should recognize that tamoxifen is contraindicated in which of the following clients?

• A. A client with a history of deep-vein thrombosis
• B. A client with a history of migraine headaches
• C. A client with a history of hypertension
• D. A client with a history of anemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in clients with a history of thromboembolic events, such as deep-vein thrombosis, due to the increased risk of blood clots. The estrogenic effects of tamoxifen can further increase the risk of thromboembolic events, making it unsafe for individuals with a history of deep-vein thrombosis. Choice B (migraine headaches), Choice C (hypertension), and Choice D (anemia) are not contraindications for tamoxifen therapy. Migraine headaches, hypertension, and anemia do not pose the same risk of adverse effects related to blood clot formation as deep-vein thrombosis does.

3. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin for heart failure. Which of the following adverse effects should the client monitor for and report to the provider?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Pedal edema
• C. Bruising
• D. Yellow-tinged vision

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Yellow-tinged vision. Yellow-tinged vision is a potential adverse effect of Digoxin and may indicate toxicity. Clients should be instructed to report this symptom promptly to the healthcare provider to prevent complications. Dry cough (choice A) is not typically associated with Digoxin. Pedal edema (choice B) is more commonly seen with heart failure but is not a direct adverse effect of Digoxin. Bruising (choice C) is not a common adverse effect of Digoxin.

4. When starting a new prescription for prednisone, which instruction should the nurse include for the client?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Do not stop taking this medication abruptly.
• C. Avoid grapefruit juice while taking this medication.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime to prevent drowsiness.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting a new prescription for prednisone is not to stop taking the medication abruptly. Abrupt discontinuation of prednisone can lead to adrenal insufficiency, emphasizing the importance of gradual tapering under healthcare provider guidance. Increasing potassium-rich foods may be necessary based on individual needs, but it is not the priority instruction in this context. Grapefruit juice interaction is more commonly associated with certain medications but not specifically with prednisone. Taking prednisone at bedtime to prevent drowsiness is not a key instruction related to its administration.

5. A client with streptococcal pneumonia is receiving penicillin G by intermittent IV bolus. 10 minutes into the infusion of the third dose, the client reports itching at the IV site, dizziness, and shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Stop the infusion.
• B. Call the provider.
• C. Elevate the head of the bed.
• D. Auscultate breath sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is exhibiting signs of anaphylaxis, a severe allergic reaction. The priority action for the nurse is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further administration of the allergen and worsening symptoms. Once the infusion is stopped, the nurse can then proceed with additional interventions, such as calling the provider, assessing the client's respiratory status, and providing appropriate care as needed.

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