ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hyponatremia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a diuretic that commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) due to its effect on sodium and water excretion. The nurse must closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as weakness, confusion, and muscle cramps, and promptly intervene to prevent complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Furosemide is not associated with hyperkalemia, hypernatremia, or hypercalcemia. Understanding the medication's mechanism of action helps prioritize monitoring for potential adverse effects.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.
3. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?
- A. Take the medication at bedtime.
- B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- C. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
- D. Expect a dry cough.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include during discharge teaching is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, leading to increased drug levels in the blood. This can result in potentiated side effects and potential toxicity. Option A is incorrect as amlodipine is usually taken once daily, not specifically at bedtime. Option C is incorrect because high-sodium foods are generally discouraged in individuals with hypertension. Option D is incorrect as a dry cough is not an expected side effect of amlodipine.
4. A client has a new prescription for Metformin. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Avoid eating foods high in potassium.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Take this medication every other day.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Metformin is to take it with food. This helps reduce gastrointestinal side effects and ensures better absorption of the medication. Choice B is incorrect as there is no specific need to avoid foods high in potassium when taking Metformin. Choice C is incorrect because Metformin is usually taken with meals, not at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect as Metformin is typically taken daily, not every other day.
5. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase your intake of bran fiber.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Take the medication with antacids.
- D. Avoid drinking orange juice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, it is essential to monitor their heart rate before each dose. Changes such as a heart rate below 60 bpm should be reported to the healthcare provider promptly. This is crucial because Digoxin can affect heart rhythm, and monitoring the heart rate helps in identifying any potential issues early on.
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