Nursing Elites

1. A client who is receiving combination chemotherapy is exhibiting a temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F). Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of an oncologic emergency?

• A. Dry oral mucous membranes
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F)
• D. Anorexia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A temperature of 38.1°C (100.6°F) can indicate an infection, which is considered an oncologic emergency in clients undergoing chemotherapy due to the heightened risk of sepsis in immunocompromised individuals. Immediate assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent severe complications. Dry oral mucous membranes, nausea and vomiting, and anorexia are common side effects of chemotherapy but are not specific indicators of an oncologic emergency like a fever in this setting.

2. When reviewing facility policies for IV therapy with the team, a nurse manager should remind the team that which technique helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

• A. Performing hand hygiene before and after IV insertion
• B. Rotating IV sites at least every 72 hours
• C. Minimizing tourniquet time
• D. Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Avoiding reinserting the needle into an IV catheter is crucial to minimizing the risk of catheter embolism. Reinserting the needle can lead to the severing of the catheter's end, potentially causing a catheter embolism, a serious complication. The other options, while important for IV therapy safety, are not directly related to preventing catheter embolism.

3. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Nitrite
• C. CaEDTA
• D. Dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The healthcare provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

• A. Bursitis
• B. Sinusitis
• C. Depression
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma due to the potential to worsen the condition by further elevating intraocular pressure, leading to harm. Choosing option D, Glaucoma, as the correct answer is crucial for the client's safety and to prevent exacerbation of their eye condition. Options A, B, and C are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use and are unrelated to the pharmacological effects of this medication.

5. A client has a new prescription for Amiodarone. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of sodium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to advise the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice while taking Amiodarone. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Amiodarone, leading to increased blood levels of the medication and raising the risk of adverse effects, such as cardiac toxicity. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Amiodarone with meals, at bedtime, or increasing intake of sodium-rich foods are not necessary instructions for this medication.

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