Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Calcium channel blockers
• C. Loop diuretics
• D. ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

2. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Mexiletine
• B. Amiodarone
• C. Quinidine
• D. Procainamide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer heparin 15,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hr. The amount available is heparin injection 20,000 units/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?

• A. 0.8 mL
• B. 0.75 mL
• C. 0.5 mL
• D. 1 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (15,000 units / 20,000 units/mL) = 0.75 mL, which is rounded up to 0.8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 0.8 mL per dose of heparin. Choice B (0.75 mL) is incorrect as it is the exact calculated volume but needs to be rounded up. Choices C (0.5 mL) and D (1 mL) are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculated volume for the desired dose of heparin.

4. A client in the operating room received a dose of Succinylcholine. During the operation, the client suddenly develops rigidity, and their body temperature begins to rise. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Neostigmine
• B. Naloxone
• C. Dantrolene
• D. Vecuronium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Muscle rigidity and a sudden rise in temperature are manifestations of malignant hyperthermia. Dantrolene acts on skeletal muscles to reduce metabolic activity and treat malignant hyperthermia effectively. Neostigmine (choice A) is used to reverse the effects of non-depolarizing neuromuscular blockers, not to treat malignant hyperthermia. Naloxone (choice B) is an opioid antagonist used for opioid overdose. Vecuronium (choice D) is a non-depolarizing neuromuscular blocker and is not used to treat malignant hyperthermia.

5. A client has a new prescription for atenolol. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for as an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that works by slowing down the heart rate. An adverse effect of atenolol is bradycardia, characterized by a slower than normal heart rate. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for signs of bradycardia, such as a slow heart rate, while taking atenolol. Therefore, the correct answer is to monitor for bradycardia. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not an expected adverse effect of atenolol as it actually reduces heart rate. Hypoglycemia (Choice B) is not a typical adverse effect of atenolol. Hypertension (Choice D) is not an adverse effect of atenolol, as atenolol is commonly used to manage hypertension.

Similar Questions