a nurse is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for digoxin to treat heart failure which of the following medications
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

2. Which of the following types of insulin is classified as 'long-acting'?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Glargine (Lantus). Glargine is classified as a long-acting insulin due to its slow, steady release over an extended period, making it suitable for basal insulin requirements. It has a duration of action that can last up to 24 hours, helping to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the day. Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin, NPH (Humulin N) is an intermediate-acting insulin, and Regular insulin (Humulin R) is a short-acting insulin, so they are not classified as long-acting insulins.

3. A client has a new prescription for Metoclopramide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction to include when teaching a client about Metoclopramide is to report any signs of restlessness or involuntary movements. Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms, such as restlessness or involuntary movements. It is essential for clients to notify their healthcare provider if they experience these symptoms to receive appropriate management.

4. A client with a urinary tract infection (UTI) is prescribed ciprofloxacin. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tendon discomfort is a potential side effect of ciprofloxacin that can lead to tendon rupture and should be reported immediately to prevent serious complications. Monitoring for this adverse effect is crucial for patient safety. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because: A) Taking an antacid with ciprofloxacin can interfere with its absorption. B) Increasing fluid intake is generally a good recommendation but not specifically related to the side effects of ciprofloxacin. C) Photophobia is not a common side effect of ciprofloxacin; therefore, avoiding direct sunlight exposure is not necessary.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the healthcare provider include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A). Prednisone can cause potassium depletion, so clients should increase their intake of foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Potassium-rich foods help maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as muscle weakness and irregular heartbeats. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products (Choice B) or avoiding foods high in vitamin K (Choice C) are not specifically related to Prednisone therapy. Decreasing protein intake (Choice D) is also not necessary in this case.

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