Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client who has a new prescription for Digoxin to treat heart failure. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Calcium channel blockers
• C. Loop diuretics
• D. ACE inhibitors

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Loop diuretics, such as Furosemide, can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the toxic effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to an increased risk of Digoxin toxicity. Spironolactone (Choice A) is less likely to cause hypokalemia and does not significantly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Calcium channel blockers (Choice B) and ACE inhibitors (Choice D) do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity through hypokalemia; therefore, they are not the medications that place the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Clopidogrel, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by reducing the formation of blood clots. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. A decrease in platelet count could indicate a risk of bleeding, which is an adverse effect associated with Clopidogrel therapy. Monitoring other laboratory values like white blood cell count, hemoglobin, and blood glucose is important for assessing overall health status but is not directly related to the potential adverse effects of Clopidogrel.

3. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

• A. Dyspnea
• B. Constipation
• C. Tinnitus
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who is taking levothyroxine. The healthcare provider should recognize that which of the following findings is a manifestation of levothyroxine overdose?

• A. Insomnia
• B. Constipation
• C. Drowsiness
• D. Hypoactive deep-tendon reflexes

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insomnia is a common symptom of levothyroxine overdose due to excessive stimulation of the central nervous system. Levothyroxine is a thyroid hormone replacement medication, and an overdose can lead to hyperthyroidism symptoms, including insomnia. Constipation and drowsiness are not typically associated with levothyroxine overdose. Hypoactive deep-tendon reflexes are more indicative of hypothyroidism rather than an overdose of levothyroxine.

5. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dry mouth is a common adverse effect of Clonidine. Clonidine can reduce saliva production, leading to dry mouth. To alleviate this symptom, the client should be advised to increase fluid intake or use sugar-free gum or candy. Monitoring for dry mouth is important to prevent complications such as oral health issues. Drowsiness, weight gain, and insomnia are potential side effects of Clonidine but are less common compared to dry mouth. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize monitoring for dry mouth as it's a more prevalent adverse effect associated with this medication.

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