Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

2. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?

• A. Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
• B. Meningococcal conjugate vaccine
• C. Varicella vaccine
• D. Rotavirus vaccine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.

3. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever. Fever can be an indication of an infection, a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring and reporting fever promptly can help in early intervention to prevent further complications. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings to report in this scenario.

4. Which of the following is the antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity?

• A. Flumazenil
• B. Methylene blue
• C. Deferoxamine
• D. Alkalinize urine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flumazenil is the specific antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity. It acts as a competitive antagonist at the benzodiazepine binding site on the GABA receptor, reversing the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Administration of flumazenil is indicated in cases of benzodiazepine overdose or toxicity to rapidly reverse the central nervous system depression caused by these drugs. It is important to note that flumazenil should be used cautiously in patients with a history of seizures or those who are physically dependent on benzodiazepines, as it can precipitate withdrawal symptoms or seizures.

5. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

• A. Sodium
• B. Potassium
• C. Magnesium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Digoxin, monitoring potassium levels is crucial as hypokalemia can increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can potentiate the effects of Digoxin on the heart, leading to toxicity. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels helps in preventing adverse effects and ensuring the safe use of Digoxin. Sodium, magnesium, and calcium levels are not directly associated with Digoxin toxicity; hence, they are not the primary focus for monitoring in this case.

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