Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

2. A client is being discharged with a new prescription for an antihypertensive medication. Which of the following statements should the nurse provide?

• A. Be sure to limit your potassium intake while taking the medication.
• B. You should check your blood pressure every 8 hours while taking this medication.
• C. Your medication dosage will be increased if you develop tachycardia.
• D. Change positions slowly when you move from sitting to standing.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Orthostatic hypotension is a common adverse effect of antihypertensive medications. The client should move slowly to a sitting or standing position and should be taught to sit or lie down if lightheadedness or dizziness occurs. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Limiting potassium intake is usually not necessary with antihypertensive medications. Checking blood pressure every 8 hours is not a standard recommendation unless specified by a healthcare provider. Increasing medication dosage due to tachycardia is not a typical practice for antihypertensive medications.

3. A client is admitted for a surgical procedure. Which of the following preexisting conditions can be a contraindication for the use of Ketamine as an intravenous anesthetic?

• A. Peptic ulcer disease
• B. Breast cancer
• C. Diabetes mellitus
• D. Schizophrenia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ketamine is known to produce psychological effects, such as hallucinations. Therefore, individuals with schizophrenia are at increased risk of experiencing exacerbation of their symptoms if given Ketamine, making it a contraindication for its use as an intravenous anesthetic. Peptic ulcer disease, breast cancer, and diabetes mellitus are not contraindications for Ketamine use as an intravenous anesthetic.

4. A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Tachycardia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia as an adverse effect. The client should monitor their pulse regularly and report any significant decreases.

5. A client in a substance abuse clinic is being assessed by a nurse after discontinuing disulfiram due to severe nausea and vomiting. What is the likely cause of the client's distress?

• A. The client demonstrated an allergic response to the medication.
• B. The client experienced a common side effect of the medication.
• C. The client consumed alcohol while taking the medication.
• D. The client took an overdose of the medication.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Disulfiram, when combined with alcohol, leads to a severe reaction causing nausea and vomiting. Since the client experienced these symptoms after starting disulfiram, it is likely that they consumed alcohol while taking the medication. Choice A is incorrect because the symptoms are more indicative of the interaction with alcohol rather than an allergic response. Choice B is incorrect as severe nausea and vomiting are not common side effects of disulfiram alone. Choice D is incorrect as there is no indication of an overdose based on the symptoms described.

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