a nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg po daily the amount available is furosemide oral solution 10 mg1 ml how many ml should the nurse
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

2. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.

3. When admitting a client and completing a preassessment before administering medications, which of the following data should the nurse include? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Use of herbal teas.' The nurse should inquire about the client's use of herbal teas because they often contain caffeine, which can impact medication biotransformation. This information is crucial to ensure the safe and effective administration of medications and to prevent potential drug interactions. Choice B, 'Daily fluid intake,' while important for overall assessment, is not directly related to medication administration. Choice C, 'Current health status,' is essential but not specific to medication administration preassessment. Choice D, 'Previous surgical history,' although relevant for a client's medical history, is not directly linked to medication administration preassessment.

4. A client has been prescribed an ACE Inhibitor for hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included by the healthcare provider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Avoid salt substitutes.' ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium to prevent hyperkalemia, which is a potential side effect of ACE Inhibitors. Choice B 'Take this medication at bedtime' is incorrect as ACE Inhibitors are usually taken in the morning to avoid nocturnal diuresis. Choice C 'Avoid foods high in potassium' is incorrect because although ACE Inhibitors can increase potassium levels, clients are generally encouraged to consume potassium-rich foods in moderation unless contraindicated. Choice D 'Limit your fluid intake' is also incorrect as ACE Inhibitors do not typically require fluid restrictions unless specified by a healthcare provider for other reasons.

5. When assessing a client with chronic Neutropenia receiving Filgrastim, what action should the nurse take to evaluate for an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when assessing a client receiving Filgrastim for chronic Neutropenia is to assess for bone pain. Bone pain is a known dose-related adverse effect of Filgrastim. Acetaminophen or opioid analgesics can be used to manage bone pain if necessary. Assessing for other types of pain, lung crackles, or heart murmurs would not be specific to the adverse effects of Filgrastim.

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