Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?

• A. 22 gtt/min
• B. 24 gtt/min
• C. 20 gtt/min
• D. 18 gtt/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Thus, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect because it miscalculates the flow rate. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min, are also incorrect as they do not accurately calculate the flow rate based on the given information.

3. What is the primary action of warfarin as an anticoagulant?

• A. Prevents the formation of blood clots
• B. Dissolves existing blood clots
• C. Dilates coronary arteries
• D. Treats rhythm disturbances

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "Prevents the formation of blood clots." Warfarin acts as an anticoagulant by inhibiting the synthesis of certain clotting factors in the liver. This action reduces the blood's ability to clot, making it effective in preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice B is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots; it prevents their formation. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin's primary action is not to dilate coronary arteries. Choice D is incorrect as warfarin is not used to treat rhythm disturbances, but rather to prevent clot formation.

4. When a client is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide, what adverse effect should they monitor for as instructed by the nurse?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Hyperkalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyponatremia is a critical adverse effect associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. This medication is a diuretic that can lead to excessive loss of sodium and water from the body, potentially causing low sodium levels and resulting in hyponatremia. Monitoring for signs and symptoms of hyponatremia, such as confusion, headache, weakness, and muscle cramps, is essential to prevent serious complications. Ototoxicity (choice B) is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide. Hypoglycemia (choice C) and hyperkalemia (choice D) are also not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use.

5. A client is starting a new prescription for enalapril. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Rise slowly from a sitting position.
• C. Avoid salt substitutes.
• D. Avoid exposure to sunlight.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client starting enalapril is to avoid salt substitutes. Salt substitutes may contain potassium, which could lead to elevated potassium levels when combined with enalapril, increasing the risk of hyperkalemia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific need to take enalapril with food, rise slowly from a sitting position, or avoid exposure to sunlight when taking this medication.

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