Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

2. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

3. A drug ending in the suffix (azole) is considered a ______.

• A. H
• B. ACE inhibitor
• C. Antifungal
• D. Beta agonist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Drugs ending in the suffix -azole are commonly associated with antifungal medications. Examples include fluconazole, ketoconazole, and itraconazole. These medications are used to treat fungal infections by inhibiting the growth of fungi. Therefore, the correct answer is option C, 'Antifungal'. Options A, B, and D do not accurately describe drugs ending in -azole.

4. A client is prescribed Clopidogrel. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess for potential adverse effects?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Platelet count
• C. Hemoglobin
• D. Blood glucose

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by inhibiting platelet aggregation. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client's platelet count to assess for potential bleeding complications. Changes in platelet count can indicate the effectiveness of Clopidogrel therapy and help prevent adverse effects related to clotting or bleeding. Monitoring white blood cell count, hemoglobin, or blood glucose levels is not directly related to the action or side effects of Clopidogrel.

5. A client has a prescription for Amphotericin B. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored by the nurse to assess for an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Serum creatinine.
• B. Serum potassium.
• C. Serum sodium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amphotericin B is known to cause nephrotoxicity, a potential adverse effect that can be monitored by checking the client's serum creatinine levels. Regular monitoring of serum creatinine helps in early identification of kidney damage and allows for timely intervention to prevent further complications. Choice B, serum potassium, is not typically associated with adverse effects of Amphotericin B. Choice C, serum sodium, and choice D, serum calcium, are not directly affected by Amphotericin B and are not primary indicators of its adverse effects.

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