a nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis tb and is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy the nurse should instruct
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

2. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention when preparing to administer Filgrastim is to discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication. This practice helps prevent contamination and ensures the medication's effectiveness. Reusing the vial can lead to contamination and compromise the sterility of the medication, putting the client at risk. Therefore, it is crucial to follow proper aseptic technique and discard the vial after withdrawing the prescribed dose.

4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin transdermal patches. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using nitroglycerin transdermal patches is to remove the patch every night before bedtime. This practice helps prevent tolerance to the medication's effects. Continuous exposure to nitroglycerin can result in the body becoming less responsive to its therapeutic effects over time, reducing its efficacy in managing the prescribed condition. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Applying the patch to a different location each day does not address the issue of tolerance. Massaging the patch area gently after application is not recommended as it may alter drug absorption. Shaving the area before applying the patch is unnecessary and may increase the risk of skin irritation.

5. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

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