a nurse is caring for a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis tb and is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy the nurse should instruct
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test

1. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

2. When teaching a client with a new prescription for Simvastatin, which instruction should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for Simvastatin is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Simvastatin, leading to increased blood levels of the drug and a higher risk of adverse effects such as muscle pain and liver damage. It is important to educate the client about this potential interaction to ensure the safe and effective use of the medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Simvastatin with food or in the morning and increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not specifically related to the safe use of Simvastatin. Avoiding grapefruit juice is crucial to prevent drug interactions.

3. A healthcare professional reviewing a client's medical record notes a new prescription for verifying the trough level of the client's medication. Which of the following actions should the professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To verify trough levels of a medication, the healthcare professional should obtain a blood specimen immediately before administering the next dose of medication. This timing ensures an accurate representation of the medication's lowest concentration in the bloodstream, which is crucial for therapeutic monitoring and dose adjustments. Choice B is incorrect because waiting 24 hours after taking the medication would not provide an accurate trough level. Choice C is incorrect as urine specimens are not used to measure trough levels. Choice D is incorrect because obtaining a blood specimen 30 minutes after administering the medication would not reflect the trough level, as it is the lowest concentration before the next dose.

4. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with Ephedrine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ephedrine is not typically used to treat COPD. While it can help relieve symptoms like congestion and hypotension, it is not a first-line treatment for COPD. Incontinence is not a condition commonly treated with Ephedrine either.

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