Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Hypoglycemia
• D. Tinnitus

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Other signs of Digoxin toxicity include vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion. Nausea can be an early indicator of toxicity and should be closely monitored by the nurse. Dry mouth and hypoglycemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications like aspirin or loop diuretics, not Digoxin.

2. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hypocalcemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.

3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. INR
• C. BUN
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

5. What is the primary use of lithium?

• A. Lower blood glucose
• B. Slow the heart rate
• C. Stabilize mood
• D. Heal ulcers

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stabilize mood. Lithium is primarily used to stabilize mood, especially in conditions like bipolar disorder. It helps in reducing the frequency and severity of manic episodes, making it an essential medication for mood stabilization. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as lithium is not used to lower blood glucose, slow the heart rate, or heal ulcers.

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