ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity?
- A. Nausea
- B. Dry mouth
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Tinnitus
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Nausea is a potential sign of Digoxin toxicity. Other signs of Digoxin toxicity include vomiting, visual disturbances, and confusion. Nausea can be an early indicator of toxicity and should be closely monitored by the nurse. Dry mouth and hypoglycemia are not typically associated with Digoxin toxicity. Tinnitus is more commonly associated with medications like aspirin or loop diuretics, not Digoxin.
2. When assessing a client taking Lithium Carbonate for Bipolar disorder, which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Coarse tremors
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coarse tremors. Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. Monitoring for tremors is crucial as they can indicate a potentially serious complication that requires immediate intervention. While other options such as severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasm may be symptoms of various conditions, they are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity; constipation is not a typical symptom of Lithium toxicity either, and muscle spasm is not a direct indicator of Lithium toxicity.
3. A client is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Neutropenia is a common adverse effect of paclitaxel due to bone marrow suppression. Clients should be instructed to monitor for signs of infection and report any symptoms such as fever, chills, or sore throat immediately to their healthcare provider.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?
- A. Ampicillin
- B. Diazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Prednisone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.
5. A healthcare professional is caring for four clients who have Peptic Ulcer Disease. The healthcare professional should recognize Misoprostol is contraindicated for which of the following clients?
- A. A client who is pregnant
- B. A client who has osteoarthritis
- C. A client who has a kidney stone
- D. A client who has a urinary tract infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Misoprostol is contraindicated in pregnancy as it can induce labor and potentially lead to harm to the fetus. Therefore, it should not be used in pregnant clients due to its uterotonic effects. For clients with osteoarthritis, kidney stone, or urinary tract infection, Misoprostol is not contraindicated specifically for these conditions.
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