ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology 2023
1. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
- B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you experience a metallic taste.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and other adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to refrain from consuming alcohol during treatment to prevent these potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because Metronidazole can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as there is no specific requirement to increase green, leafy vegetable intake with Metronidazole. Choice D is incorrect as a metallic taste is a known side effect of Metronidazole but does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.
2. A client has a new prescription for Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Maintain a fluid restriction while taking it.
- C. Take it with food.
- D. Stop taking it when manifestations subside.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take it with food.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole can cause gastrointestinal upset, and taking it with food helps reduce the risk of stomach irritation. It should not be taken on an empty stomach. Maintaining good hydration is important to prevent kidney-related side effects, so maintaining a fluid restriction, as in choice B, is not appropriate. Additionally, stopping the medication when manifestations subside, as in choice D, is incorrect as antibiotics should be taken for the full prescribed course to ensure eradication of the infection and to prevent antibiotic resistance.
3. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
4. Which of the following is a potassium-sparing diuretic?
- A. Furosemide
- B. Spironolactone
- C. Hydrochlorothiazide
- D. Bumetanide
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by antagonizing the aldosterone receptor, leading to potassium retention and sodium excretion. This mechanism makes it a suitable choice for conditions where potassium retention is desired, such as in patients with heart failure or liver cirrhosis. Choices A, C, and D are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and bumetanide are loop diuretics and thiazide diuretics, respectively, which promote the excretion of potassium.
5. A client has a new prescription for Hydrochlorothiazide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyponatremia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypercalcemia
- D. Hypoglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic known to cause electrolyte imbalances, particularly hyponatremia (low sodium levels). The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia by assessing their electrolyte levels. Choice B, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as hydrochlorothiazide is more likely to cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) rather than hyperkalemia. Choice C, Hypercalcemia, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not known to cause increased calcium levels. Choice D, Hypoglycemia, is also incorrect as it is not a common adverse effect of hydrochlorothiazide.
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