Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Metronidazole. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Increase your intake of green, leafy vegetables.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you experience a metallic taste.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Metronidazole is to avoid drinking alcohol while taking this medication. Metronidazole can cause a disulfiram-like reaction when combined with alcohol, resulting in severe nausea, vomiting, and other adverse effects. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to refrain from consuming alcohol during treatment to prevent these potential complications. Choice B is incorrect because Metronidazole can be taken with or without food. Choice C is irrelevant as there is no specific requirement to increase green, leafy vegetable intake with Metronidazole. Choice D is incorrect as a metallic taste is a known side effect of Metronidazole but does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.

2. A client has a new prescription for rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fever. The nurse should instruct the client to report fever as it can be an indication of an infection, which is a potential complication of rituximab therapy. Monitoring for fever is crucial to detect early signs of infection and prevent complications. Dizziness (choice A), urinary frequency (choice C), and dry mouth (choice D) are not typically associated with rituximab therapy and are not the primary concerns that the nurse needs to address with the client.

3. When teaching a client who has a new prescription for Dextromethorphan to suppress a cough, which adverse effect should the nurse instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Anxiety
• C. Sedation
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Dextromethorphan can cause sedation, so the client should be advised to avoid activities that require alertness. Diarrhea, anxiety, and palpitations are not commonly associated adverse effects of Dextromethorphan.

4. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

5. A client is receiving IV Dopamine for the treatment of shock. Which of the following findings indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Decreased blood pressure
• C. Increased urine output
• D. Decreased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Dopamine is a medication used in shock to increase cardiac output and improve renal perfusion. An increase in urine output indicates that the medication is effective as it shows improved renal perfusion and kidney function, which are essential for managing shock effectively. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as an increased heart rate, decreased blood pressure, and decreased respiratory rate are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of IV Dopamine in treating shock.

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