Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer intravenously to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept refrigerated until just prior to administration.
• C. Do not shake the vial; gently invert it to mix before withdrawing the dose.
• D. Discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Filgrastim, only one dose should be withdrawn from the vial, and the vial should then be discarded to prevent any contamination or errors in dosing. It is crucial not to shake the vial but gently invert it to mix the medication before withdrawing the appropriate dose. Refrigeration is not required for Filgrastim; it should be stored at room temperature until just before administration. Choice A is incorrect because Filgrastim is typically administered subcutaneously, not intravenously. Choice B is incorrect as the medication should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated, until administration. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the vial is not recommended for Filgrastim.

2. How should the oral form of albuterol be taken?

• A. Administer with meals to minimize gastric irritation
• B. Administer before meals with water
• C. Administer after meals with water
• D. Administer in the morning with milk

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct way to take oral albuterol is with meals to minimize gastric irritation. Taking it with food can help reduce the risk of stomach upset that may occur when the medication is taken on an empty stomach. This approach can improve tolerability and adherence to the treatment regimen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking albuterol before meals, after meals, or in the morning with milk does not address the issue of minimizing gastric irritation, which is a common side effect of the medication.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health record of a client who asks about using Propranolol to treat hypertension. The provider should recognize which of the following conditions is a contraindication for taking propranolol?

• A. Asthma
• B. Glaucoma
• C. Hypertension
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Asthma. Propranolol is a nonselective beta-adrenergic blocker that blocks both beta1 and beta2 receptors. Blockade of beta2 receptors in the lungs causes bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated in clients with asthma. Using propranolol in asthma can exacerbate bronchoconstriction and potentially lead to respiratory distress or exacerbation of asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Glaucoma, hypertension, and tachycardia are not contraindications for taking propranolol. In fact, propranolol is commonly used to treat hypertension and tachycardia.

4. Which of the following conditions is not treated with epinephrine?

• A. Renal disease
• B. Asthma
• C. Hypotension
• D. Glaucoma

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epinephrine is not used to treat renal disease. Epinephrine is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma, hypotension, and glaucoma, but it is not an appropriate treatment for renal disease. Renal disease requires specific management strategies that do not involve the use of epinephrine.

5. When educating a client with a new prescription for Amlodipine, which instruction should the nurse provide?

• A. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• B. Avoid driving until you see how the medication affects you.
• C. Stop taking the medication if you develop a dry cough.
• D. Take the medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid driving until they understand the medication's effects. Amlodipine can cause dizziness, making it unsafe to drive until the client knows how the medication affects them. This instruction promotes client safety and prevents potential accidents due to medication side effects.

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