Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?

• A. Administer intravenously to prevent injury.
• B. Ensure that the medication is kept refrigerated until just prior to administration.
• C. Do not shake the vial; gently invert it to mix before withdrawing the dose.
• D. Discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When administering Filgrastim, only one dose should be withdrawn from the vial, and the vial should then be discarded to prevent any contamination or errors in dosing. It is crucial not to shake the vial but gently invert it to mix the medication before withdrawing the appropriate dose. Refrigeration is not required for Filgrastim; it should be stored at room temperature until just before administration. Choice A is incorrect because Filgrastim is typically administered subcutaneously, not intravenously. Choice B is incorrect as the medication should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated, until administration. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the vial is not recommended for Filgrastim.

2. A client with breast cancer is being taught about Tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the client be informed about?

• A. Irregular heart rhythm
• B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
• C. Yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine
• D. Difficulty swallowing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Abnormal uterine bleeding is a known adverse effect of tamoxifen. It is important to educate the client about this side effect as those taking tamoxifen are at an increased risk for endometrial cancer. Any abnormal uterine bleeding should be promptly reported and evaluated by healthcare providers to ensure timely management and monitoring. The other options, such as irregular heart rhythm, yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine, and difficulty swallowing, are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are not commonly reported adverse effects. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to inform the client about.

3. A client is taking Paroxetine to treat PTSD and reports teeth grinding at night. Which interventions should the nurse implement to manage Bruxism? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Concurrent administration of buspirone.
• B. Administration of a different SSRI.
• C. Use of a mouth guard.
• D. Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct interventions to manage Bruxism associated with Paroxetine use include A: Concurrent administration of buspirone. Buspirone can help alleviate the side effect of Bruxism. Additionally, C: Use of a mouth guard is recommended to prevent oral damage from teeth grinding. B: Administration of a different SSRI is not necessary since the issue is specific to Paroxetine. D: Changing to a different class of antidepressant medication may be considered in severe cases, but the initial step should be to add buspirone to address the Bruxism caused by Paroxetine.

4. A client is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline with a history of preterm labor. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can increase my activity now that I've started on this medication.
• B. I will increase my daily fluid intake to 3 quarts.
• C. I will report increasing intensity of contractions to my doctor.
• D. I am glad this will prevent preterm labor.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider as these are signs of preterm labor. Monitoring contractions is crucial for the management of preterm labor and the safety of both the client and the fetus. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing activity, fluid intake, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor do not address the essential need to report changes in contractions, which are a vital sign of potential complications in preterm labor.

5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

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