ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Filgrastim for the first time to a client who has just undergone a bone marrow transplant. Which of the following interventions is appropriate?
- A. Administer intravenously to prevent injury.
- B. Ensure that the medication is kept refrigerated until just prior to administration.
- C. Do not shake the vial; gently invert it to mix before withdrawing the dose.
- D. Discard the vial after removing one dose of the medication.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When administering Filgrastim, only one dose should be withdrawn from the vial, and the vial should then be discarded to prevent any contamination or errors in dosing. It is crucial not to shake the vial but gently invert it to mix the medication before withdrawing the appropriate dose. Refrigeration is not required for Filgrastim; it should be stored at room temperature until just before administration. Choice A is incorrect because Filgrastim is typically administered subcutaneously, not intravenously. Choice B is incorrect as the medication should be stored at room temperature, not refrigerated, until administration. Choice C is incorrect as shaking the vial is not recommended for Filgrastim.
2. A nurse is teaching a client who has breast cancer about the adverse effects of chemotherapy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?
- A. You should use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding.'
- B. You should take aspirin for minor aches and pains.'
- C. You should avoid contact with individuals who recently received live virus vaccines.'
- D. You should consume a diet low in protein to reduce the risk of renal damage.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to use a soft-bristled toothbrush to prevent bleeding, which can occur due to chemotherapy-induced thrombocytopenia.
3. During transfusion of a unit of whole blood, a nurse is assessing a client who develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?
- A. Epinephrine
- B. Lorazepam
- C. Furosemide
- D. Diphenhydramine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The client's symptoms indicate circulatory overload, which can occur during blood transfusions. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such cases to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Epinephrine is used for severe allergic reactions, lorazepam for anxiety or seizures, and diphenhydramine for mild allergic reactions or as a sedative. Therefore, the correct choice is Furosemide (C) to manage circulatory overload during a blood transfusion.
4. A healthcare professional is educating clients in an outpatient facility about the use of Insulin to treat type 1 Diabetes Mellitus. For which of the following types of insulin should the professional inform the clients to expect a peak effect 1 to 5 hr after administration?
- A. Insulin glargine
- B. NPH insulin
- C. Regular insulin
- D. Insulin lispro
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Regular insulin typically exhibits a peak effect approximately 1 to 5 hours after administration. It is important for clients to be aware of this timing to ensure optimal management of their blood glucose levels. Insulin glargine, NPH insulin, and Insulin lispro have different onset and peak times compared to Regular insulin. Insulin glargine has a slow, steady release with no pronounced peak, NPH insulin peaks around 4 to 12 hours after administration, and Insulin lispro has a rapid onset and a peak effect around 0.5 to 2.5 hours after administration. Therefore, Regular insulin is the correct choice for a peak effect within the specified time frame.
5. A client has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Dry cough
- B. Weight gain
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A: Dry cough.' Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. If the client experiences this side effect, it is important to notify the healthcare provider for assessment and possible medication adjustment.
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