Nursing Elites

1. In the management of nausea due to gastroparesis in a client with Diabetes, which of the following medications may be prescribed?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, as a dopamine antagonist, is commonly prescribed to manage nausea and improve gastric motility in clients with diabetic gastroparesis. By enhancing gastric emptying, it can help alleviate symptoms like bloating and nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice A, Lubiprostone, is primarily used to treat chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation, not nausea due to gastroparesis. Choice C, Bisacodyl, is a stimulant laxative used for the treatment of constipation and bowel preparation before procedures, not for nausea associated with gastroparesis. Choice D, Loperamide, is an antimotility agent used to manage diarrhea, not nausea or gastric motility issues seen in gastroparesis.

2. A client is starting a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
• C. Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Take the medication with orange juice to enhance absorption.' Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice helps enhance the absorption of iron due to the ascorbic acid present in the orange juice, which aids in iron absorption. This combination can help improve the effectiveness of the medication. Choice A, taking the medication with meals, may reduce gastrointestinal side effects but does not specifically enhance absorption. Choice B, taking the medication on an empty stomach, may lead to better absorption but can also increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D, taking the medication with a full glass of milk, is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit the absorption of iron.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication administration record for a client who is receiving transdermal Fentanyl for severe pain. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional expect to cause an adverse effect when administered concurrently with Fentanyl?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Prednisone

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Diazepam, a CNS depressant, can interact with Fentanyl causing severe sedation when administered concurrently. This is due to the additive central nervous system depressant effects of both medications, which can lead to excessive sedation, respiratory depression, and other serious adverse effects. Therefore, healthcare professionals need to monitor clients closely for signs of excessive sedation or respiratory depression when administering these medications together.

4. What is levothyroxine's pharmacologic classification?

• A. Thyroid Preparations
• B. Metabolic Inhibitors
• C. Analgesic
• D. Loop Diuretic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Levothyroxine is classified as a thyroid preparation because it is a synthetic form of the thyroid hormone thyroxine. It is primarily used to treat hypothyroidism by supplementing or replacing the natural thyroid hormones in the body, helping to regulate metabolism and energy levels. Choice B, Metabolic Inhibitors, is incorrect because levothyroxine does not inhibit metabolism but rather helps regulate it. Choice C, Analgesic, is incorrect as levothyroxine is not used for pain relief but for thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Choice D, Loop Diuretic, is also incorrect as loop diuretics are medications that act on the kidneys to increase urine production and are not related to thyroid hormone replacement therapy.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer verapamil by IV bolus to a client who is experiencing cardiac dysrhythmias. For which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare professional monitor when giving this medication?

• A. Hyperthermia
• B. Hypotension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Muscle pain

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil is known to cause hypotension as one of its adverse effects due to its vasodilatory properties. Therefore, it is essential for the healthcare professional to monitor the client's blood pressure closely during and after administration to prevent complications such as severe hypotension. Hyperthermia, ototoxicity, and muscle pain are not commonly associated with verapamil administration, making choices A, C, and D incorrect.

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