Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

2. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Epinephrine
• B. Lorazepam
• C. Furosemide
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.

3. A client has a prescription for a Nicotine transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch at the same time each day.
• B. Remove the patch at bedtime.
• C. Apply the patch to the same location daily.
• D. Place the patch over an area of the body with hair.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client using a Nicotine transdermal patch is to apply the patch at the same time each day. This helps maintain consistent blood levels of nicotine throughout the treatment period, which can aid in reducing cravings for smoking. Consistency in the application time is essential for the effectiveness of the patch. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Removing the patch at bedtime may disrupt the continuous delivery of nicotine, applying the patch to the same location daily can cause skin irritation, and placing the patch over an area with hair may affect its adhesion and absorption.

4. Why does a nurse on an oncology unit verify a client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin before administering it to a client with breast cancer?

• A. Excessive doxorubicin can result in myelosuppression.
• B. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may lead to extravasation.
• C. An excess amount of doxorubicin can lead to cardiomyopathy.
• D. Exceeding the lifetime cumulative dose limit of doxorubicin may cause red-tinged urine and sweat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Verifying the client's current cumulative lifetime dose of doxorubicin is necessary because excessive amounts of the medication can lead to cardiomyopathy, a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect. By monitoring the cumulative dose, healthcare providers can help prevent cardiotoxicity and ensure patient safety during treatment.

5. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Neutropenia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.

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