a nurse is preparing to administer an opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain which of the following complications should the nurse monitor

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

A. Urinary retention
B. Tachypnea
C. Hypertension
D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

2. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

A. Quinidine
B. Disopyramide
C. Aminodarone
D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

3. What is the therapeutic action of Phenytoin?

A. Antidiabetic
B. Anticonvulsant
C. Mood stabilizer
D. Antianxiety agent

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Phenytoin is primarily used as an anticonvulsant to prevent and control seizures. It works by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, making it effective in managing conditions like epilepsy. Antidiabetic medications are used to regulate blood sugar levels, mood stabilizers help manage mood disorders, and antianxiety agents are used to reduce anxiety symptoms, none of which are the primary therapeutic action of Phenytoin.

4. A client is taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

A. Hypovolemia
B. Hypercalcemia
C. Agitation
D. Headache

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Headache is an adverse effect that the nurse should monitor for in a client taking Desmopressin for Diabetes Insipidus. It can be an early sign of water intoxication, which is a potential complication of desmopressin therapy due to excessive water retention in the body.

5. A client has a prescription for Timolol eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

A. Apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application.
B. Avoid blinking immediately after instilling the drops.
C. Keep your eyes closed for 5 minutes after application.
D. Administer the drops directly onto the cornea.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include is to apply gentle pressure to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 to 60 seconds after application. This technique helps prevent systemic absorption of the medication, reducing the risk of systemic side effects. By applying pressure, the drainage of the medication into the bloodstream through the nasolacrimal duct is minimized, enhancing the drug's local ocular effects. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blinking immediately after instilling the drops, keeping eyes closed for 5 minutes, and administering the drops directly onto the cornea are not recommended practices for administering Timolol eye drops.