Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

• A. Urinary retention
• B. Tachypnea
• C. Hypertension
• D. Irritating cough

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

2. When providing discharge instructions to a client with a new prescription for Levofloxacin, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid taking Levofloxacin with dairy products. This is because calcium in dairy products can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Patients should be advised to take Levofloxacin either 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products to ensure optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Levofloxacin can be taken with or without food. Choice C is incorrect as the timing of Levofloxacin administration is not specified as at bedtime. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase intake of potassium-rich foods specifically for Levofloxacin administration.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medication list of a client scheduled for surgery. Which of the following medications places the client at risk for increased bleeding during surgery?

• A. Warfarin
• B. Acetaminophen
• C. Ibuprofen
• D. Aspirin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Aspirin is an anticoagulant that inhibits platelet function, increasing the risk of bleeding during surgery. It is important for the healthcare professional to identify this medication, inform the surgical team, and consider withholding it prior to surgery to reduce the risk of excessive bleeding. Warfarin is also an anticoagulant but can be managed by adjusting the dosage or monitoring INR levels. Acetaminophen and ibuprofen are not associated with increased bleeding risk as they do not affect platelet function like aspirin.

4. Which of the following is not a known effect of the drug Clozapine?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Antipsychotic
• C. Used for Schizophrenia
• D. Hyperactivity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clozapine is associated with side effects like agranulocytosis (a serious blood condition), sedation (not hyperactivity), and is used as an antipsychotic to treat schizophrenia. Hyperactivity is not a typical effect of Clozapine, making it the correct answer in this context.

5. What is a severe adverse effect of warfarin?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Arrhythmias
• C. Blurred vision
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A severe adverse effect of warfarin is bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting blood clotting factors, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Excessive bleeding can occur internally or externally, and it is crucial for individuals taking warfarin to be aware of this potential complication and seek medical attention if they experience any signs of bleeding. Arrhythmias, blurred vision, and bradycardia are not typically associated with warfarin use, making them incorrect choices.

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