a nurse is preparing to administer an opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain which of the following complications should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

2. A client with angina is seeking a prescription for sildenafil to manage erectile dysfunction. Which of the following medications is contraindicated with Sildenafil?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Isosorbide, an organic nitrate used for angina, is contraindicated with sildenafil due to the risk of fatal hypotension. Concurrent use of these medications can lead to severe hypotension. Patients are advised to avoid taking nitrate medications for 24 hours after using isosorbide to prevent this dangerous interaction.

3. During a unit of whole blood transfusion, a client develops a cough, shortness of breath, elevated blood pressure, and distended neck veins. The healthcare professional should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is exhibiting signs of fluid overload, which can occur during blood transfusion. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, is commonly prescribed in such situations to help relieve manifestations of circulatory overload by promoting diuresis and reducing fluid volume. Therefore, the correct choice is C - Furosemide. Epinephrine (Choice A) is not indicated for fluid overload but for severe allergic reactions. Lorazepam (Choice B) is a benzodiazepine used for anxiety or sedation, not for fluid overload. Diphenhydramine (Choice D) is an antihistamine often used for allergic reactions, not for fluid overload.

4. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan, and a nurse is providing discharge teaching. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring blood pressure daily is crucial for clients taking Valsartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, to ensure effective management of hypertension. Valsartan helps lower blood pressure by relaxing blood vessels, and regular monitoring helps track the medication's effectiveness and any potential side effects. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valsartan does not need to be taken with food, avoiding potassium-rich foods is not specifically required for this medication, and feeling drowsy is not a common side effect of Valsartan.

5. When caring for a client prescribed Digoxin, which finding should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of Digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, can lead to toxic effects such as bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client's heart rate for any significant decreases, as this could indicate Digoxin toxicity and prompt further intervention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Digoxin toxicity typically presents with bradycardia, not hypertension, hypoglycemia, or hypercalcemia.

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