a nurse is preparing to administer an opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain which of the following complications should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer an Opioid agonist to a client who has acute pain. Which of the following complications should the provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is urinary retention. Opioid agonists like morphine can suppress the awareness of bladder fullness, leading to urinary retention. This complication can result in significant discomfort and potential urinary tract issues if not promptly addressed. Tachypnea (increased respiratory rate) is a common side effect of opioids but is not a specific complication related to urinary retention. Hypertension is not typically associated with opioid agonists and is more commonly seen with opioid antagonists. An irritating cough is not a known complication of opioid agonists and is not directly related to the effect opioids have on the urinary system.

2. A client has been prescribed a calcium channel blocker for angina. The nurse knows this medication should NOT be used with caution in combination with which drug classes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium channel blockers and beta blockers should be used with caution together because they can both suppress heart function, potentially leading to bradycardia, heart block, or heart failure. NSAIDs and cardiac glycosides do not have significant interactions with calcium channel blockers in the same way, so they are not typically a cause for concern when combined.

3. A client with OCD has a new prescription for Paroxetine. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to include when teaching a client with OCD who has a new prescription for Paroxetine is that it can take several weeks before the client feels like the medication is helping. Paroxetine, like other selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs), can take 1 to 4 weeks before the client reaches the full therapeutic benefit. Therefore, it is important to inform the client about this delay in onset of action to manage their expectations and promote adherence to the treatment plan. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because taking Paroxetine before bedtime is not necessary, it should be taken consistently at the same time each day; Paroxetine is usually taken regularly, not as needed; and while monitoring weight is important, it is not a specific instruction related to the onset of action for Paroxetine.

4. A client has a prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate is to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position helps prevent this adverse effect by reducing the risk of reflux of the medication into the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day with a full glass of plain water. Choice B is incorrect because Alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because frequent headaches are not a common side effect of Alendronate.

5. A client is prescribed Lithium. Which of the following laboratory values should be monitored to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed Lithium, monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial to ensure they remain within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels helps prevent adverse effects associated with lithium toxicity, such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, tremors, and confusion.

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