ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will take the medication with a high-fiber meal.
- B. I should report any vision changes to my healthcare provider.
- C. I will take the medication if my heart rate is below 60 bpm.
- D. I should avoid dairy products while taking this medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Visual disturbances, such as blurred vision or seeing halos, can be a sign of digoxin toxicity. It is crucial for the client to report any changes in vision to their healthcare provider promptly to prevent serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because taking Digoxin with a high-fiber meal can affect its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because taking Digoxin based on heart rate alone is not recommended without healthcare provider supervision. Choice D is incorrect because there is no specific interaction between Digoxin and dairy products.
2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil to control hypertension. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Increase the amount of dietary fiber in the diet.
- B. Drink grapefruit juice daily to increase vitamin C intake.
- C. Decrease the amount of calcium in the diet.
- D. Withhold food for 1 hr after taking the medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Increasing dietary fiber intake is essential when taking Verapamil to prevent constipation, a common adverse effect of the medication. Dietary fiber can help maintain bowel regularity and alleviate constipation.
3. A client is prescribed Ranitidine. Which of the following laboratory results should be monitored by the nurse?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC).
- B. Serum creatinine.
- C. Serum potassium.
- D. Serum glucose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ranitidine can potentially lead to blood dyscrasias, necessitating the monitoring of the client's CBC. Checking the CBC can help detect any abnormalities in blood cell counts and assess the client's overall hematologic status during Ranitidine therapy.
4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is beginning therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?
- A. Dyspnea
- B. Constipation
- C. Tinnitus
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is dyspnea. Dyspnea can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Prompt reporting of dyspnea allows for timely evaluation and management to prevent potential complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication. Therefore, they are not the priority findings that the client should report.
5. A client presents in the Emergency Department with chest pain. Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause chest pain?
- A. Arthritis
- B. Peptic ulcer disease
- C. Myocardial infarction
- D. Gastric reflux
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Arthritis is a condition primarily affecting the joints and is not known to cause chest pain. Peptic ulcer disease, myocardial infarction, and gastric reflux are conditions that can present with chest pain due to various reasons such as inflammation, ischemia, or reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus, respectively.
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