a nurse is caring for a client who is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medic
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ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023 Quizlet

1. A client is taking metformin for type 2 diabetes. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A decrease in hemoglobin A1C is a more specific indicator of metformin's effectiveness in controlling blood glucose levels over a longer period compared to fasting blood glucose levels. Hemoglobin A1C reflects average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months, providing a more comprehensive view of glycemic control. Increased urine output (choice A) is not a direct indicator of metformin's effectiveness and can be influenced by various factors. Decreased fasting blood glucose (choice B) can fluctuate due to various reasons and may not provide a reliable long-term assessment of metformin's efficacy. Decreased polyuria (choice D) refers to a symptom rather than a direct measure of metformin's effectiveness in managing diabetes.

2. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

3. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-salmon for postmenopausal osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcitonin-salmon is commonly administered intranasally for postmenopausal osteoporosis. To ensure optimal absorption, the client should alternate nostrils daily when inhaling the medication. This practice helps prevent irritation and promotes consistent drug delivery through both nostrils. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because calcitonin-salmon is not swallowed as a tablet, applied topically, or mixed with juice; it is usually administered intranasally.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Lisinopril. Which of the following laboratory values should the professional monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause hyperkalemia by reducing the excretion of potassium in the kidneys. Monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare professional should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are on Lisinopril. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Lisinopril primarily affects potassium levels due to its mechanism of action as an ACE inhibitor. Serum sodium, calcium, and magnesium levels are not typically affected by Lisinopril in the same way as potassium.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.

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