a nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for escitalopram for treatment of generalized anxiety disorder which of the following stateme
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client with a new prescription for Escitalopram for the treatment of generalized anxiety disorder is being taught by a healthcare provider. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. When discontinuing escitalopram, the client should taper the medication slowly according to a prescribed tapered dosing schedule to reduce the risk of withdrawal syndrome. This gradual reduction helps minimize potential withdrawal symptoms and ensures a safer discontinuation process. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking escitalopram on an empty stomach, following a low-sodium diet, and not crushing the medication are not directly related to the safe and effective use of the medication or its discontinuation process.

2. A client has a new prescription for Pancrelipase for chronic pancreatitis. Which of the following instructions should be included by the nurse?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Pancrelipase is to take it with meals and snacks to aid in the digestion of fats, proteins, and carbohydrates. This helps optimize the effectiveness of the medication in managing chronic pancreatitis. Choice B is incorrect because Pancrelipase should not be chewed but swallowed whole. Choice C is incorrect as the medication should be taken with meals. Choice D is incorrect because while Pancrelipase can cause stool changes, yellow stool is not an expected outcome.

3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

4. When caring for a school-age child with a new prescription for Atomoxetine, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Liver damage. Atomoxetine can lead to liver damage as an adverse effect. Symptoms of liver damage include jaundice, upper abdominal tenderness, dark urine, and elevated liver enzymes. Monitoring for these signs is crucial when a child is on this medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because Atomoxetine is not known to cause kidney toxicity, seizure activity, or adrenal insufficiency as primary adverse effects.

5. A client is starting a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, it is important to monitor for fluid loss. Weighing oneself daily helps track changes in weight due to fluid loss, which can indicate the effectiveness of the medication. This monitoring assists in managing fluid balance and adjusting the dosage if necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because potassium supplements should only be taken if prescribed by a healthcare provider due to the risk of hyperkalemia with furosemide. Choice D is incorrect because decreasing sodium intake is generally a good dietary practice but not a specific instruction related to furosemide therapy.

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