ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. Which of the following is commonly used to treat migraine headaches?
- A. Beta-blockers
- B. Cholinesterase Inhibitors
- C. ACE inhibitors
- D. Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Anti-epileptic drugs (AEDs) are often used in the management of migraine headaches due to their ability to help prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of migraines. They work by stabilizing electrical activity in the brain, which can help in controlling migraine symptoms. While beta-blockers are also sometimes used in migraine prevention, anti-epileptic drugs are more commonly associated with migraine treatment. Cholinesterase Inhibitors are not typically used for migraine headaches, as they are more commonly associated with conditions like Alzheimer's disease. ACE inhibitors are a type of medication used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, but they are not a first-line treatment for migraines.
2. A client has a prescription for long-term use of oral prednisone for the treatment of chronic asthma. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects of this medication?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Nervousness
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Constipation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is weight gain. Oral prednisone can lead to weight gain and fluid retention due to its sodium and water retention effects. Monitoring weight changes is crucial to identify and manage this adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because oral prednisone is not typically associated with nervousness, bradycardia, or constipation as common adverse effects. Therefore, the nurse should primarily focus on monitoring weight gain in clients prescribed long-term oral prednisone therapy.
3. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain.
- B. If pain is not relieved, take another tablet in 10 minutes.
- C. You can take up to five tablets in 15 minutes.
- D. Swallow the tablet with water.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to take one tablet at the first sign of chest pain. If the pain is not relieved after 5 minutes, the client should call 911 and take a second tablet. Taking more than the recommended dose can lead to serious side effects, and swallowing the tablet would not provide the rapid effect needed in cases of chest pain. Choice A is correct because it aligns with the standard protocol for nitroglycerin use in treating angina. Choice B is incorrect as the second tablet should be taken after 5 minutes, not 10 minutes. Choice C is incorrect as taking up to five tablets in 15 minutes is excessive and can result in serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as nitroglycerin sublingual tablets should be placed under the tongue for rapid absorption, not swallowed.
4. A client with Hodgkin's disease is receiving Cyclophosphamide IV. Which medication should be administered concurrently to prevent an adverse effect of Cyclophosphamide?
- A. Uroprotectant agent, such as mesna
- B. Opioid, such as morphine
- C. Loop diuretic, such as furosemide
- D. H1 receptor antagonist, such as diphenhydramine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Mesna, an uroprotectant agent, is administered with nitrogen mustard chemotherapy drugs like Cyclophosphamide to prevent hemorrhagic cystitis, a common adverse effect. Mesna works by binding to and inactivating the toxic metabolites of Cyclophosphamide in the bladder, thereby reducing the risk of bladder toxicity.
5. A client has a new prescription for Spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor as an adverse effect?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hyponatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to hyperkalemia as an adverse effect. Hyperkalemia can result in muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias, making it essential for the nurse to monitor potassium levels closely when a client is on Spironolactone. Choice B, Hypoglycemia, is incorrect because Spironolactone is not known to cause low blood sugar levels. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, and Choice D, Hyponatremia, are also incorrect as Spironolactone is not associated with decreased levels of calcium or sodium.
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