a nurse is preparing to administer a dose of hydromorphone iv to a client which of the following actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023

1. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a dose of Hydromorphone IV to a client. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional preparing to administer IV Hydromorphone to a client is to administer the medication over 5 minutes. This slow administration is crucial to reduce the risk of hypotension and respiratory depression. Administering the medication rapidly can lead to adverse effects. Option B, administering Naloxone prior to Hydromorphone, is incorrect because Naloxone is used as an antidote for opioid overdose, not as a routine pre-medication. Option C, assessing the client's blood pressure before administration, is important but not the immediate action to take to reduce adverse effects of Hydromorphone. Option D, injecting the medication into the client's subcutaneous tissue, is incorrect as Hydromorphone is meant for intravenous administration for rapid onset of action.

2. A client has a new prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with a prescription for Oxycodone/Acetaminophen is to avoid taking additional Acetaminophen while on this medication. Combining medications containing Acetaminophen can lead to exceeding the maximum recommended dose and increase the risk of liver toxicity. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to emphasize the importance of not taking extra Acetaminophen while on this prescription to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Oxycodone/Acetaminophen on an empty stomach is not necessary; increasing fiber intake is not directly related to this medication, and avoiding taking the medication before bedtime is not a specific concern associated with this prescription.

3. What finding should a nurse monitor for as an adverse effect when a client has a new prescription for Spironolactone?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an increase in potassium levels. Hyperkalemia can be dangerous, causing muscle weakness and cardiac dysrhythmias. Monitoring potassium levels closely is crucial when a client is on Spironolactone. Hypoglycemia (choice B) is incorrect because Spironolactone does not typically affect blood glucose levels. Hypocalcemia (choice C) and hyponatremia (choice D) are also incorrect as Spironolactone's primary impact is on potassium levels.

4. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for neutropenia when receiving capecitabine, as it is a common adverse effect caused by bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infection, making it essential for the nurse to closely monitor the client's white blood cell count and assess for signs of infection during treatment. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use. Therefore, monitoring for neutropenia is the priority in this scenario.

5. A client is starting therapy with filgrastim, and a nurse is providing teaching on monitoring adverse effects. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone pain. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for bone pain since it is a common adverse effect of filgrastim. This occurs due to increased bone marrow activity stimulated by the medication.

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