Nursing Elites

1. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if one tablet does not relieve Anginal pain after waiting 5 minutes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously.
• B. Call emergency services.
• C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
• D. Wait another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where Anginal pain persists after taking one sublingual tablet and waiting 5 minutes, it is crucial to call emergency services (911) immediately. This could indicate a myocardial infarction (heart attack) rather than a typical Anginal attack. The client should not take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously without seeking immediate medical help as this could delay appropriate intervention if the pain is due to a heart attack. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule is not recommended for immediate relief of acute Anginal pain as it works too slowly. Waiting another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet is not appropriate if the pain persists, as prompt action is essential in suspected heart-related issues.

2. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

• A. Swelling of the ankles.
• B. Increased urination.
• C. Persistent cough.
• D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

3. In caring for a client who received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and presents with a pulse rate of 98/min and blood pressure of 74/44 mm Hg, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the client is experiencing severe hypotension due to Verapamil administration. The appropriate medication to counteract the vasodilation caused by Verapamil and reverse severe hypotension is Calcium gluconate, which should be administered slowly IV. Therefore, the correct choice is Calcium gluconate (Choice A). Sodium bicarbonate (Choice B) is not indicated for hypotension related to Verapamil use. Potassium chloride (Choice C) and Magnesium sulfate (Choice D) are not the appropriate medications to address the hypotension in this situation.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer morphine 4 mg IV to a client. Available is morphine 10 mg/mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.4 mL
• C. 0.6 mL
• D. 0.8 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 4 mg from a solution of 10 mg/mL, the healthcare professional should administer 0.4 mL. The calculation is done by dividing the desired dose (4 mg) by the concentration of the solution (10 mg/mL), which equals 0.4 mL. Choice A (0.2 mL) is incorrect because it is half of the correct calculation. Choice C (0.6 mL) is incorrect because it is 50% more than the correct calculation. Choice D (0.8 mL) is incorrect because it exceeds the correct calculation.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to administer dextrose 5% in water (D5W) 750 mL IV to infuse over 6 hr. How many mL/hr should the IV pump be set to deliver?

• A. 125 mL/hr
• B. 100 mL/hr
• C. 150 mL/hr
• D. 200 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate, divide the total volume by the total time: (750 mL / 6 hr) = 125 mL/hr. Therefore, the IV pump should be set to deliver 125 mL/hr to infuse dextrose 5% in water (D5W) over 6 hours. Choice B, 100 mL/hr, is incorrect as it does not match the correct calculation. Choice C, 150 mL/hr, is incorrect as it is higher than the calculated flow rate. Choice D, 200 mL/hr, is incorrect as it is also higher than the calculated flow rate.

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