Nursing Elites

1. A client with Angina Pectoris asks the nurse about the next step if one tablet does not relieve Anginal pain after waiting 5 minutes. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously.
• B. Call emergency services.
• C. Take a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule.
• D. Wait another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where Anginal pain persists after taking one sublingual tablet and waiting 5 minutes, it is crucial to call emergency services (911) immediately. This could indicate a myocardial infarction (heart attack) rather than a typical Anginal attack. The client should not take two more sublingual tablets simultaneously without seeking immediate medical help as this could delay appropriate intervention if the pain is due to a heart attack. Taking a sustained-release nitroglycerin capsule is not recommended for immediate relief of acute Anginal pain as it works too slowly. Waiting another 5 minutes before taking a second sublingual tablet is not appropriate if the pain persists, as prompt action is essential in suspected heart-related issues.

2. Which adverse reaction poses the greatest life-threatening risk when taking Omeprazole?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Constipation
• C. Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
• D. Acute interstitial nephritis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most life-threatening adverse reaction associated with Omeprazole is Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. This condition can be severe and life-threatening due to the potential for dehydration, electrolyte imbalances, and complications such as toxic megacolon. Chest pain, constipation, and acute interstitial nephritis are potential side effects of Omeprazole but are not considered as life-threatening as Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea. Monitoring for signs of this adverse reaction is crucial, and immediate medical attention should be sought if symptoms develop.

3. A patient is receiving IV heparin for a deep-vein thrombosis and begins vomiting blood. After the heparin has been stopped, which of the following medications should the nurse prepare to administer?

• A. Vitamin K1
• B. Atropine
• C. Protamine
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Protamine is the antidote for heparin, as it reverses its anticoagulant effects. In cases of heparin overdose or if there is excessive bleeding, administering protamine can quickly neutralize the effects of heparin, helping to prevent further bleeding complications.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer clindamycin 200 mg by intermittent IV bolus. The amount available is clindamycin injection 200 mg in 100 mL 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) to infuse over 30 min. The healthcare professional should set the IV pump to deliver how many mL/hr?

• A. 200 mL/hr
• B. 150 mL/hr
• C. 100 mL/hr
• D. 250 mL/hr

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in mL/hr: (Volume in mL / Time in hours) = Flow rate in mL/hr. In this case, (100 mL / 0.5 hr) = 200 mL/hr. The correct calculation is: 100 mL (volume) / 0.5 hr (time) = 200 mL/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 200 mL/hr. Choice B (150 mL/hr), C (100 mL/hr), and D (250 mL/hr) are incorrect as they do not match the calculated flow rate needed for the administration of clindamycin.

5. Which of the following is NOT an opioid or NSAID?

• A. Morphine
• B. Ibuprofen
• C. Hydromorphone
• D. Acetaminophen

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Acetaminophen is the correct answer as it is not classified as an opioid or NSAID. Acetaminophen is considered a non-opioid analgesic, which means it works by a different mechanism than opioids and NSAIDs to relieve pain and reduce fever. Morphine, hydromorphone, and ibuprofen, on the other hand, are classified as opioids or NSAIDs. Morphine and hydromorphone are opioids, while ibuprofen is an NSAID (Nonsteroidal Anti-Inflammatory Drug), all of which work through different mechanisms compared to acetaminophen.

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