ATI RN
Proctored Pharmacology ATI
1. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
2. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
- A. Ketamine
- B. Naltrexone
- C. Flumazenil
- D. Fluvoxamine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.
3. A client has a prescription for Amoxicillin. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Avoid taking the medication with milk.
- C. Expect your stools to turn clay-colored.
- D. Complete the entire course of therapy.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Complete the entire course of therapy. It is crucial for clients to complete the entire course of amoxicillin therapy to ensure the infection is fully treated and to prevent antibiotic resistance. Prematurely stopping the antibiotic can lead to incomplete eradication of the infection, potentially causing it to return and be more difficult to treat. Choices A and B are not specific to amoxicillin and are general medication administration instructions. Choice C is not a common side effect of amoxicillin and does not require patient education.
4. A client has a new prescription for Atenolol. Which of the following statements should be included by the healthcare provider?
- A. Take the medication with a high-fat meal.
- B. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
- C. Expect a persistent cough.
- D. Avoid foods high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client is prescribed Atenolol, a beta-blocker, they should monitor their heart rate before taking the medication. It is crucial because if the heart rate is below 60 bpm, the client needs to contact their healthcare provider for further guidance and evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Atenolol does not need to be taken with a high-fat meal, does not typically cause a persistent cough, and there is no need to avoid foods high in fiber when taking this medication.
5. A client is prescribed Ciprofloxacin and seeks guidance from a nurse. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.
- C. Take this medication at bedtime.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid taking this medication with dairy products.' Ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products due to the interference of calcium with medication absorption. Taking Ciprofloxacin 1 hour before or 2 hours after consuming dairy products ensures optimal effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because Ciprofloxacin is usually taken on an empty stomach or with a light meal, not necessarily with heavy meals. Choice C is incorrect as there is no specific instruction to take Ciprofloxacin at bedtime. Choice D is incorrect because there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods intake specifically related to Ciprofloxacin use.
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