Nursing Elites

1. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?

• A. Decreased fever
• B. Decreased sense of anxiety
• C. Decreased blood pressure
• D. Decreased seizure activity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.

2. A client in a critical care unit is postoperative following a right pneumonectomy. After extubation from the ventilator, in which of the following positions should the client be placed?

• A. Prone
• B. On the nonoperative side
• C. Sims'
• D. Semi-Fowler's

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a pneumonectomy, positioning the client in a semi-Fowler's position is crucial for optimal ventilation. This position helps improve lung expansion on the remaining side, facilitating better oxygenation and preventing complications like atelectasis. Placing the client prone, on the nonoperative side, or in Sims' position would not provide the same respiratory benefits post-pneumonectomy.

3. A patient states he experiences anxiety and has panic attacks at least once a week. What might be helpful for this patient?

• A. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
• B. Lithium
• C. Alprazolam (Xanax)
• D. Spironolactone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alprazolam (Xanax) is a medication commonly prescribed to treat anxiety disorders and panic attacks. It belongs to the class of medications known as benzodiazepines, which work by enhancing the effects of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) in the brain to produce a calming effect. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic drug, not typically used for anxiety or panic attacks. Lithium is primarily used to treat bipolar disorder, not anxiety. Spironolactone is a diuretic primarily used to treat conditions like high blood pressure and heart failure, not anxiety or panic attacks.

4. Why is it important to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors?

• A. To assess for renal impairment
• B. To ensure the patient is receiving adequate fluid intake
• C. To assess the patient for potential heart failure
• D. To assess for NSAID use

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to monitor ins and outs in patients using ACE inhibitors to assess for renal impairment. ACE inhibitors can affect renal function, potentially leading to renal impairment. Monitoring the patient's fluid balance helps in early recognition of any renal issues and allows for timely interventions to prevent complications.

5. A client has a new prescription for Amlodipine. Which of the following side effects should the client monitor for and report?

• A. Swelling of the ankles.
• B. Increased urination.
• C. Persistent cough.
• D. Dark-colored urine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can cause peripheral edema (swelling of the ankles) as a side effect. This occurs due to the dilation of blood vessels and increased fluid retention. It is important for the client to monitor for ankle swelling as it could indicate a potential adverse reaction to the medication. Reporting this side effect to the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure appropriate management and potential adjustment of the treatment plan.\n Choice B, increased urination, is not a common side effect of Amlodipine. Choice C, persistent cough, is more commonly associated with ACE inhibitors rather than calcium channel blockers like Amlodipine. Choice D, dark-colored urine, is not a typical side effect of Amlodipine and is not something the client should specifically monitor for and report while taking this medication.

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