a nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias associated with hypokalemia. Choice B, serum calcium, is incorrect because Furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels. Choice C, serum sodium, is less commonly affected by Furosemide use. Choice D, serum magnesium, is not the primary electrolyte affected by Furosemide, although magnesium levels may be affected indirectly.

2. When teaching the parents of a child who has a new prescription for Desipramine, which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the parents is the priority to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority adverse effect to report when a child is taking Desipramine is suicidal thoughts. Desipramine can lead to an increased risk of suicidal thoughts and behaviors. The nurse should emphasize to the parents the importance of monitoring the child for any signs of worsening depression or suicidal ideation. Prompt reporting of such symptoms can help prevent harm to the child. Choices A, C, and D are not the priority adverse effects associated with Desipramine. While constipation, photophobia, and dry mouth can occur as side effects of Desipramine, they are not as critical as the risk of suicidal thoughts, which requires immediate attention to ensure the safety of the child.

3. A client with a history of migraine headaches is starting prophylaxis therapy with Propranolol. Which of the following findings in the client history should be reported to the provider by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Propranolol is contraindicated in clients with a first-degree heart block due to its negative chronotropic properties that can further slow the heart rate. This can worsen conduction through the atrioventricular node, potentially leading to heart block progression. Therefore, the nurse should report the finding of a first-degree heart block to the provider before initiating Propranolol therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for Propranolol therapy. A prior myocardial infarction, taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation, or using an SSRI for depression do not directly impact the initiation of Propranolol therapy in a client with a history of migraine headaches.

4. A healthcare professional is educating a client who is starting therapy with gemcitabine. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional instruct the client to report?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The healthcare professional should instruct the client to report dyspnea since it can indicate pulmonary toxicity, a severe adverse effect associated with gemcitabine therapy. Monitoring and reporting dyspnea promptly can help in early detection and management of potential serious complications. Constipation, tinnitus, and dry mouth are not typically associated with gemcitabine therapy and are not urgent findings requiring immediate reporting.

5. When caring for a client prescribed Lithium, which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess for potential toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client's serum lithium levels to ensure they are within the therapeutic range and to assess for potential toxicity. Monitoring serum lithium levels is crucial because lithium has a narrow therapeutic range, and levels outside this range can lead to toxicity, which can be life-threatening. Therefore, regular monitoring is essential to prevent adverse effects and ensure the medication's effectiveness.

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