Nursing Elites

1. ACE Inhibitors are used in the treatment of all EXCEPT:

• A. Hypertension
• B. Heart Failure
• C. Hypotension
• D. Diabetic nephropathy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: ACE inhibitors are commonly used in the treatment of hypertension, heart failure, and diabetic nephropathy due to their ability to reduce blood pressure, improve heart function, and protect the kidneys. However, they are not indicated for hypotension as they can further lower blood pressure, worsening the condition. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Choice A, hypertension, is correct as ACE inhibitors are a first-line treatment for this condition. Choice B, heart failure, is also correct as ACE inhibitors help improve heart function in patients with heart failure. Choice D, diabetic nephropathy, is correct as ACE inhibitors can slow the progression of kidney damage in diabetic patients.

2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for Morphine to manage post-operative pain. Which of the following assessments should the healthcare professional perform first?

• A. Urine output
• B. Bowel sounds
• C. Pain level
• D. Respiratory rate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The healthcare professional should prioritize assessing the client's respiratory rate because respiratory depression is a life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate allows for early detection of potential complications and timely intervention to prevent harm. Assessing urine output, bowel sounds, and pain level are important but should come after ensuring the client's respiratory status is stable as it is the most critical assessment to prevent serious complications associated with opioid use.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer furosemide 80 mg PO daily. The available furosemide oral solution is 10 mg/1 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer?

• A. 8 mL
• B. 10 mL
• C. 6 mL
• D. 12 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To determine the volume to administer, divide the desired dose by the available concentration. In this case, 80 mg divided by 10 mg/mL equals 8 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 8 mL of furosemide oral solution. Choice B, 10 mL, is incorrect as it does not reflect the accurate calculation. Choices C and D, 6 mL and 12 mL respectively, are also incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation based on the provided concentration and dose.

4. When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), how many hours should you be nitrate-free each day?

• A. 1-2 hours
• B. 5-10 hours
• C. 3-4 hours
• D. 10-12 hours

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When using Nitroglycerine (transdermal), it should be applied for 10-12 hours per day to ensure its effectiveness. A nitrate-free period within the day is essential to prevent the development of tolerance to the medication.

5. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV Nitroprusside is infused at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, causing mental status changes such as delirium. It is crucial to monitor the thiocyanate levels to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL during therapy to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because IV Nitroprusside is not commonly associated with intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia. Monitoring for delirium is crucial due to the risk of thiocyanate toxicity.

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