Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client who has a new prescription for a Fentanyl transdermal patch. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply the patch to a hairy area.
• B. Change the patch every 24 hours.
• C. Avoid exposure to heat sources.
• D. Cut the patch to adjust the dosage.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction that the nurse should include when providing discharge instructions for a client with a Fentanyl transdermal patch is to avoid exposure to heat sources. Heat can increase the absorption of the medication, leading to a risk of overdose. Choice A is incorrect because the patch should be applied to a clean, non-hairy area. Choice B is incorrect as the Fentanyl patch is usually changed every 72 hours, not every 24 hours. Choice D is incorrect as the patch should never be cut to adjust the dosage.

2. A client has a new prescription for Furosemide. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hyponatremia. Furosemide, a diuretic, commonly causes hyponatremia (low sodium levels) as it increases the excretion of sodium. The nurse needs to monitor the client for signs of hyponatremia, such as confusion, weakness, and muscle cramps, by checking electrolyte levels regularly. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because hyperkalemia (choice A), hypernatremia (choice C), and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not typically associated with Furosemide use.

3. A client is receiving imatinib. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Edema
• B. Constipation
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Urinary retention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Imatinib is known to cause edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of fluid retention, such as swelling of the extremities or weight gain. Edema can indicate potential complications and requires prompt intervention to prevent further issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are not typically associated with imatinib use. Constipation, dry mouth, and urinary retention are not commonly reported adverse effects of imatinib therapy.

4. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

• A. Monitor your heart rate before taking the medication.
• B. Increase your intake of high-potassium foods.
• C. Take the medication with a full glass of milk.
• D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clients prescribed Digoxin should monitor their heart rate before each dose. This is essential to identify any potential bradycardia, defined as a heart rate below 60 bpm, which can be a side effect of Digoxin. Any significant changes in heart rate should be reported promptly to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Choice B is incorrect because increasing intake of high-potassium foods can lead to hyperkalemia, a condition that can be exacerbated by Digoxin. Choice C is incorrect as taking Digoxin with a full glass of milk is not necessary. Choice D is incorrect as black, tarry stools are not an expected side effect of Digoxin.

5. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?

• A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
• B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
• C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
• D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.

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