Nursing Elites

1. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

2. A client has a prescription for Clindamycin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid taking the medication with food.
• C. Discontinue the medication if diarrhea occurs.
• D. Expect to have increased appetite while taking this medication.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking Clindamycin is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Clindamycin can cause esophageal irritation, so taking it with a full glass of water helps minimize this risk. Avoiding taking the medication with food is not necessary. If diarrhea occurs, clients should not discontinue the medication without consulting their healthcare provider. Clindamycin is not known to cause increased appetite.

3. A client who takes Chlorpromazine for the treatment of Schizophrenia is due for a follow-up assessment. The nurse should expect the greatest improvement in which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Disorganized speech.
• B. Bizarre behavior.
• C. Impaired social interactions.
• D. Hallucinations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client takes a conventional antipsychotic medication like chlorpromazine, the greatest improvement is typically seen in positive symptoms such as disorganized speech. These medications are more effective in managing positive symptoms like disorganized speech rather than negative symptoms like impaired social interactions or hallucinations. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate improvement in disorganized speech as a positive response to chlorpromazine treatment.

4. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Furosemide
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

5. Which of the following is the antidote for lead poisoning?

• A. Naloxone
• B. Nitrite
• C. CaEDTA
• D. Dialysis

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Calcium disodium ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (CaEDTA) is the antidote for lead poisoning. CaEDTA works by chelating lead, forming a complex that is then excreted in the urine. It is used in chelation therapy to treat lead poisoning by reducing lead levels in the body.

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