a nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a prescription for furosemide which of the following instructions should the nurse include
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

2. A client with congestive heart failure taking digoxin refused breakfast and is complaining of nausea and weakness. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should check the client's vital signs first because nausea and weakness can be signs of digoxin toxicity. Vital signs can provide immediate information on the client's condition and help guide further interventions. Monitoring vital signs will allow the nurse to assess for bradycardia, a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Requesting a dietitian consult (choice B) may be necessary but addressing the immediate concern of toxicity is the priority. Suggesting rest before eating (choice C) may not address the underlying issue of digoxin toxicity. Requesting an antiemetic (choice D) can be considered later but is not the initial action needed in this situation.

3. A client has a prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent potential adverse effects such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness.

4. When starting amitriptyline, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client starts taking amitriptyline, an important adverse effect to monitor for is urinary retention. Amitriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant that can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. It is crucial to educate the client on recognizing and reporting this adverse effect to their healthcare provider. Diarrhea is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline and is more associated with other medications. Bradycardia is a possible adverse effect of amitriptyline, but urinary retention is a more common and significant concern. Dry cough is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

5. A client received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min, and blood pressure is 74/44 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, where the client's blood pressure is significantly lowered due to Verapamil administration, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil. It should be given slowly intravenously as it counteracts the vasodilation caused by Verapamil, helping to normalize blood pressure levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for low blood pressure. Potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate are not the appropriate choices to address hypotension caused by Verapamil.

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