ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The provider should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Coarse tremors
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor for this symptom as it indicates a potential overdose of the medication. Severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasms are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity but rather a symptom of hypertensive crisis. Constipation is not a typical sign of Lithium toxicity but could be seen in other conditions. Muscle spasms are not specific to Lithium toxicity but can occur due to various reasons.
2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer Haloperidol 2 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is haloperidol 1 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer?
- A. 1 tablet
- B. 2 tablets
- C. 3 tablets
- D. 4 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the desired dose by the dose per tablet. In this case, (2 mg / 1 mg/tablet) = 2 tablets required to administer the correct dosage of Haloperidol.
3. A client is receiving treatment with methotrexate. Which of the following supplements should the nurse instruct the client to take?
- A. Folic acid
- B. Vitamin D
- C. Calcium
- D. Iron
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to take folic acid when receiving treatment with methotrexate to reduce the risk of methotrexate toxicity. Methotrexate acts as a folic acid antagonist, leading to folic acid deficiency, which can be counteracted by supplementing with folic acid. Vitamin D, calcium, and iron are not specifically recommended to counteract methotrexate effects and do not play a significant role in mitigating methotrexate toxicity.
4. A client is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory value should be monitored by the nurse to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?
- A. PT
- B. aPTT
- C. INR
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is specifically used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. It should be maintained at 1.5 to 2 times the normal level. Monitoring aPTT helps ensure that the therapeutic range of heparin is achieved to prevent clot formation while minimizing the risk of bleeding complications. Choice A (PT) is incorrect as it is used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Choice C (INR) is also incorrect as it is primarily used to monitor warfarin therapy. Choice D (Platelet count) is not directly related to monitoring the effectiveness of heparin therapy.
5. A client with breast cancer is being taught about Tamoxifen. Which of the following adverse effects of tamoxifen should the client be informed about?
- A. Irregular heart rhythm
- B. Abnormal uterine bleeding
- C. Yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine
- D. Difficulty swallowing
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Abnormal uterine bleeding is a known adverse effect of tamoxifen. It is important to educate the client about this side effect as those taking tamoxifen are at an increased risk for endometrial cancer. Any abnormal uterine bleeding should be promptly reported and evaluated by healthcare providers to ensure timely management and monitoring. The other options, such as irregular heart rhythm, yellowing of the sclera or dark-colored urine, and difficulty swallowing, are not typically associated with tamoxifen use and are not commonly reported adverse effects. Therefore, they are not the priority adverse effects to inform the client about.
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