ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2023
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who takes Lithium Carbonate for the treatment of Bipolar disorder. The provider should recognize which of the following findings as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?
- A. Severe hypertension
- B. Coarse tremors
- C. Constipation
- D. Muscle spasm
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor for this symptom as it indicates a potential overdose of the medication. Severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasms are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity but rather a symptom of hypertensive crisis. Constipation is not a typical sign of Lithium toxicity but could be seen in other conditions. Muscle spasms are not specific to Lithium toxicity but can occur due to various reasons.
2. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following findings should be identified as a contraindication to this medication?
- A. Asthma
- B. Diabetes mellitus
- C. Hypertension
- D. Glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Propranolol is a non-selective beta-blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction, making it contraindicated for clients with asthma. Asthma is a contraindication due to the potential for worsening bronchoconstriction and exacerbating respiratory symptoms. Choice B, diabetes mellitus, is not a contraindication for Propranolol. Choice C, hypertension, is actually an indication for Propranolol as it is commonly used to treat hypertension. Choice D, glaucoma, is not a contraindication for Propranolol use.
3. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take furosemide in the morning.
- B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
- C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.
4. A client has a new prescription for hydrochlorothiazide to treat hypertension. Which of the following instructions should be included?
- A. Take the medication in the morning.
- B. Increase intake of potassium-rich foods.
- C. Avoid sun exposure while taking this medication.
- D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction that should be included for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods. Hydrochlorothiazide, being a diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia by enhancing potassium excretion. Increasing consumption of potassium-rich foods like bananas or oranges can help prevent hypokalemia and maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking the medication in the morning is not a specific instruction related to hydrochlorothiazide. Avoiding sun exposure is more relevant for photosensitive medications, not hydrochlorothiazide. Limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not necessary unless specifically advised by a healthcare provider.
5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
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