Nursing Elites

1. A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever when starting rituximab therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection, which is a potential complication associated with rituximab. Early detection and treatment of infections are important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication's side effects. Therefore, fever is the most crucial symptom to report to healthcare providers.

2. What is the action of Nitroglycerin?

• A. Dilates the Bronchi
• B. Reduces Blood Glucose
• C. Reduces Nausea
• D. Dilates Coronary Arteries

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nitroglycerin acts by dilating the coronary arteries, leading to increased blood flow and oxygen supply to the heart. This helps in relieving angina symptoms by reducing the heart's workload and improving blood supply to the myocardium. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Nitroglycerin's primary action is not related to dilating bronchi, reducing blood glucose, or reducing nausea.

3. A client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth. The healthcare provider should plan to monitor the client's urine for which of the following?

• A. Bilirubin
• B. Protein
• C. Potassium
• D. Calcium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is taking Somatropin to stimulate growth, monitoring calcium levels in the urine is crucial. Excessive calcium excretion can occur in the urine of clients taking Somatropin, increasing the risk of renal calculi. Therefore, monitoring calcium levels is essential to assess for potential kidney stone formation. Bilirubin, protein, and potassium are not specifically monitored in the urine of clients taking Somatropin for growth stimulation.

4. A healthcare provider is planning to administer Ciprofloxacin IV to a client who has cystitis. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

• A. Administer a concentrated solution.
• B. Infuse the medication over 60 min.
• C. Infuse the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing.
• D. Choose a small peripheral vein for administration.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin should be infused over 60 minutes to minimize vein irritation and reduce the risk of adverse effects. Administering a concentrated solution can lead to vein irritation and potential complications. Infusing the solution through the primary IV fluid tubing can cause incompatibility issues. Choosing a small peripheral vein may not be suitable for administering Ciprofloxacin, which should be infused through a larger vein to prevent vein irritation and ensure a proper dilution of the medication.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

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