ATI RN
ATI Proctored Pharmacology Test
1. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your pulse before taking the medication.
- C. Expect to have an increased appetite.
- D. Discontinue the medication if you feel nauseated.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When educating a client about Digoxin, it is crucial to instruct them to monitor their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is essential to ensure it is not below 60 beats per minute before taking each dose. If the pulse is low, the client should hold the dose and seek guidance from their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Digoxin with food may affect its absorption, Digoxin is not known to increase appetite, and feeling nauseated does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.
2. What is the expected outcome of Valproate therapy?
- A. Decreased fever
- B. Decreased sense of anxiety
- C. Decreased blood pressure
- D. Decreased seizure activity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreased seizure activity. Valproate is commonly used in the treatment of epilepsy to help control and reduce seizure frequency. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Valproate is not primarily used to treat fever, anxiety, or blood pressure issues.
3. A healthcare professional is obtaining a medication history from a client who is to receive Imipenem-cilastatin IV to treat an infection. Which of the following medications the client also receives puts them at risk for a medication interaction?
- A. Regular insulin
- B. Furosemide
- C. Valproic acid
- D. Ferrous sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Valproic acid. Imipenem-cilastatin decreases the blood levels of valproic acid, an antiseizure medication, which can lead to increased seizure activity. Monitoring and adjusting the dosage of valproic acid may be necessary when co-administered with Imipenem-cilastatin to prevent adverse effects. Choices A, B, and D do not typically interact significantly with Imipenem-cilastatin and are not associated with a high risk of adverse interactions in this scenario.
4. A client has a new prescription for Warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
- A. INR of 4.0
- B. Potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
- C. Sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- D. Creatinine level of 1.0 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 4.0 is above the therapeutic range for a client on Warfarin, indicating an increased risk of bleeding. This finding requires immediate reporting to the provider for appropriate intervention to prevent complications associated with excessive anticoagulation. Potassium, sodium, and creatinine levels are within normal ranges and are not directly related to the risk of bleeding in a client on Warfarin therapy.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer vancomycin 1 g by intermittent IV bolus. Available is vancomycin 1 g in 100 mL of dextrose 5% in water (D5W) to infuse over 45 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver?
- A. 22 gtt/min
- B. 24 gtt/min
- C. 20 gtt/min
- D. 18 gtt/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To determine the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), you can use the formula: (Volume in mL x Drop factor) / Time in minutes = Flow rate in gtt/min. In this case, it would be (100 mL x 10 gtt/mL) / 45 min = 22 gtt/min. Therefore, the healthcare professional should adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver 22 gtt/min. Choice B, 24 gtt/min, is incorrect as it results from a miscalculation. Choices C and D, 20 gtt/min and 18 gtt/min respectively, are also incorrect calculations based on the given parameters.
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