ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.
2. When completing a nursing history for a client taking Simvastatin, which of the following disorders should the nurse identify as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications?
- A. History of severe constipation
- B. History of hypertension
- C. Active hepatitis C
- D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Ezetimibe is contraindicated in clients with active moderate-to-severe liver disorders, particularly if they are already on a statin like simvastatin. Hepatitis C is a liver condition that can be exacerbated by Ezetimibe, leading to potential complications. Therefore, the nurse should identify active hepatitis C as a contraindication to adding Ezetimibe to the client's medications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they are not directly related to the contraindication of Ezetimibe in clients taking Simvastatin.
3. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Muscle pain
- B. Flushing
- C. Gynecomastia
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who is prescribed Furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the healthcare provider monitor?
- A. Serum potassium
- B. Serum calcium
- C. Serum sodium
- D. Serum magnesium
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Therefore, the healthcare provider should closely monitor the client's serum potassium levels when they are prescribed Furosemide. While monitoring other electrolytes like sodium and magnesium may also be important in certain situations, the priority for a client prescribed Furosemide is to monitor serum potassium levels due to the risk of hypokalemia.
5. When educating a client with early Parkinson's disease about pramipexole, what adverse effect should the nurse advise the client to monitor for?
- A. Hallucinations
- B. Increased salivation
- C. Diarrhea
- D. Discoloration of urine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hallucinations. Pramipexole can lead to hallucinations, especially within 9 months of starting the medication, and may necessitate discontinuation. Hallucinations are a serious adverse effect that the client should be aware of and report promptly to their healthcare provider for evaluation and management. Increased salivation (choice B), diarrhea (choice C), and discoloration of urine (choice D) are not common adverse effects associated with pramipexole and are not typically emphasized in client education for this medication.
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