a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for valsartan which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

2. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

3. Reteplase (Retavase) has been ordered for a client diagnosed with an MI. The nurse understands that this drug needs to be administered within which time frame following the onset of symptoms?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Reteplase (Retavase) is a thrombolytic medication used in the treatment of myocardial infarction (MI). It is crucial to administer this drug within 30 minutes to 12 hours following the onset of symptoms to achieve optimal therapeutic effects and improve patient outcomes. Administering Reteplase within this time frame helps in restoring blood flow to the affected areas of the heart by dissolving blood clots, reducing myocardial damage, and potentially preventing further complications associated with MI.

4. A client informs a healthcare professional about taking Gingko Biloba. Which of the following medications is contraindicated for a client using Gingko Biloba?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is contraindicated for a client taking Gingko Biloba due to the potential interaction that can lead to suppressed coagulation and an increased risk of bleeding or hemorrhage. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and when combined with Gingko Biloba, which also has anticoagulant properties, the risk of bleeding complications is significantly heightened. Acetaminophen (Choice A), Digoxin (Choice C), and Lisinopril (Choice D) do not have significant interactions with Gingko Biloba compared to Warfarin. Acetaminophen is a pain reliever, Digoxin is a medication for heart conditions, and Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor for hypertension.

5. A client has a new prescription for Propranolol. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in teaching the client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct statement to include when teaching a client about Propranolol is to avoid sudden changes in position. Propranolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness and lightheadedness, particularly when changing positions. Therefore, clients should be advised to change positions slowly to prevent falls and related injuries. Choice A is incorrect because Propranolol actually helps lower heart rate and blood pressure. Choice B is not a specific requirement for taking Propranolol. Choice D is also incorrect as increasing high-sodium foods is not recommended with Propranolol which can affect blood pressure control.

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