ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.
2. A client is receiving treatment with capecitabine. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?
- A. Hyperglycemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Capecitabine is known to cause neutropenia as a common adverse effect due to bone marrow suppression. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections and requires close monitoring to prevent complications. Hyperglycemia (Choice A) is not typically associated with capecitabine. Hypocalcemia (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not commonly linked to capecitabine use, making them incorrect choices.
3. A client has a new prescription for Clozapine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. You should have a high-carbohydrate snack between meals and at bedtime.
- B. You are likely to develop hand tremors if you take this medication for a long period of time.
- C. You may experience temporary numbness of your mouth after each dose.
- D. You should have your white blood cell count monitored every week.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clozapine has a risk for fatal agranulocytosis, making weekly monitoring of the client's white blood cell (WBC) count essential to detect any potential issues early. This monitoring helps in managing the risk and ensuring the client's safety while on clozapine.
4. When caring for a client with a wound infection, which action should the nurse perform first in the plan of care?
- A. Administer antibiotic medication.
- B. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
- C. Review WBC laboratory findings.
- D. Apply a dressing to the wound.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority action when caring for a client with a wound infection is to obtain a wound specimen for culture before initiating antibiotic therapy. This step is crucial to identify the specific microorganism causing the infection, allowing for targeted antibiotic treatment. Reviewing WBC laboratory findings and applying a wound dressing are important steps, but obtaining a wound specimen for culture takes precedence as it guides appropriate antibiotic therapy by identifying the causative organism.
5. A client has a new prescription for Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction. Which of the following findings should be identified as an adverse effect?
- A. Nausea
- B. Bruising
- C. Dizziness
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bruising is an adverse effect to be monitored when a client is prescribed Aspirin for the prevention of myocardial infarction due to its association with increased bleeding risk. Aspirin's antiplatelet effect can lead to bruising and other signs of bleeding, necessitating close observation to prevent complications. Nausea, dizziness, and dry mouth are not typically recognized adverse effects of Aspirin therapy for myocardial infarction prevention.
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