Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Valsartan. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) that can cause hyperkalemia by affecting the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system. The nurse should closely monitor the client's potassium levels due to the risk of hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications. Choice B, hypoglycemia, is not a common adverse effect of Valsartan. Choice C, bradycardia, is not directly associated with Valsartan use. Choice D, hypercalcemia, is not a typical adverse effect of Valsartan.

2. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?

• A. Seizures
• B. Hypotension
• C. Insomnia
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.

3. A healthcare professional in a provider's office is monitoring serum electrolytes for four older adult clients who take digoxin. Which of the following electrolyte values increases a client's risk for Digoxin toxicity?

• A. Calcium 9.2 mg/dL
• B. Calcium 10.3 mg/dL
• C. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L
• D. Potassium 4.8 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Potassium 3.4 mEq/L. Potassium 3.4 mEq/L is below the expected reference range and puts a client at risk for digoxin toxicity. Low potassium levels can lead to fatal dysrhythmias, especially in older clients taking Digoxin, as potassium plays a crucial role in the heart's electrical activity. Choices A and B are related to calcium levels, which do not directly increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity. Choice D, Potassium 4.8 mEq/L, is within the expected reference range and would not increase the risk of Digoxin toxicity.

4. A client is starting to take amitriptyline. The healthcare provider should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Urinary retention
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Dry cough

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Urinary retention. Amitriptyline, a tricyclic antidepressant, can cause relaxation of the bladder sphincter muscles, leading to urinary retention. Monitoring for urinary retention is crucial as it is a common anticholinergic effect associated with this medication. Diarrhea (choice A) is not a common adverse effect of amitriptyline. Bradycardia (choice C) is more commonly associated with beta-blockers rather than tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline. Dry cough (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of amitriptyline.

5. A client has a new prescription for Omeprazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication before meals.
• B. Take this medication with food.
• C. Take this medication at bedtime.
• D. Take this medication with antacids.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take this medication before meals.' Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that is most effective in reducing stomach acid production when taken before meals. This timing helps the medication work optimally by inhibiting acid secretion that occurs in response to food intake. Choice B ('Take this medication with food') is incorrect because Omeprazole should be taken before meals. Choice C ('Take this medication at bedtime') is incorrect as the optimal timing is before meals, not at bedtime. Choice D ('Take this medication with antacids') is incorrect because Omeprazole should not be taken with antacids as they can interfere with its absorption.

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