Nursing Elites

1. A client in the emergency department has Benzodiazepine toxicity due to an overdose. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

• A. Administer flumazenil.
• B. Identify the client's level of orientation.
• C. Infuse IV fluids.
• D. Prepare the client for gastric lavage.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a situation where a client presents with Benzodiazepine toxicity, the priority action for the nurse is to assess the client. By identifying the client's level of orientation, the nurse can gather crucial information about the client's mental status, which is essential for determining the appropriate care and interventions needed. Administering flumazenil is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines but should be based on a comprehensive assessment. Infusing IV fluids and preparing for gastric lavage may be necessary interventions but should follow a thorough assessment of the client's condition to ensure proper prioritization of care.

2. A patient is receiving education about a new prescription for Omeprazole to manage heartburn. What information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. This medication decreases the production of gastric acid.
• C. Take this medication 2 hours after eating.
• D. This medication can cause hyperkalemia.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct information to include when teaching a patient about Omeprazole is that it decreases the production of gastric acid. Omeprazole works by inhibiting the proton pump in the stomach lining, thereby reducing acid secretion. This mechanism helps in managing heartburn symptoms effectively. Choice A is incorrect because Omeprazole is usually taken before a meal. Choice C is incorrect as Omeprazole is typically taken before meals, not after. Choice D is incorrect because hyperkalemia is not a common side effect of Omeprazole.

3. A client has a new prescription for Digoxin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Monitor your pulse before taking the medication.
• C. Expect to have an increased appetite.
• D. Discontinue the medication if you feel nauseated.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When educating a client about Digoxin, it is crucial to instruct them to monitor their pulse before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so monitoring the pulse is essential to ensure it is not below 60 beats per minute before taking each dose. If the pulse is low, the client should hold the dose and seek guidance from their healthcare provider. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking Digoxin with food may affect its absorption, Digoxin is not known to increase appetite, and feeling nauseated does not necessarily indicate the need to discontinue the medication.

4. A client has a new prescription for Albuterol and Beclomethasone inhalers for the control of asthma. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Take the albuterol at the same time each day.
• B. Administer the albuterol inhaler before using the beclomethasone inhaler.
• C. Use beclomethasone if experiencing an acute episode.
• D. Avoid shaking the beclomethasone before use.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client is prescribed an inhaled beta2-agonist (such as albuterol) and an inhaled glucocorticoid (such as beclomethasone) for asthma control, the beta2-agonist should be administered first. Administering the beta2-agonist before the glucocorticoid helps promote bronchodilation and enhances the absorption of the glucocorticoid, maximizing its effectiveness in the lungs. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol is usually taken as needed for quick relief of asthma symptoms and not necessarily at the same time each day. Choice C is incorrect as beclomethasone is a controller medication used for long-term asthma management, not for acute episodes. Choice D is incorrect as shaking the beclomethasone inhaler before use helps ensure proper medication dispersion for effective inhalation.

5. A client received IV Verapamil to treat supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The client's pulse rate is now 98/min, and blood pressure is 74/44 mm Hg. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following IV medications?

• A. Calcium gluconate
• B. Sodium bicarbonate
• C. Potassium chloride
• D. Magnesium sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, where the client's blood pressure is significantly lowered due to Verapamil administration, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Calcium gluconate. Calcium gluconate is used to reverse severe hypotension caused by Verapamil. It should be given slowly intravenously as it counteracts the vasodilation caused by Verapamil, helping to normalize blood pressure levels. Sodium bicarbonate is not indicated for low blood pressure. Potassium chloride and magnesium sulfate are not the appropriate choices to address hypotension caused by Verapamil.

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