ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology
1. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication with food.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.
2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Verapamil is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication. This can result in a higher risk of adverse effects, such as hypotension and bradycardia. Therefore, it is essential for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil at bedtime, monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia, and increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not specific instructions related to Verapamil therapy and do not address the potential interaction with grapefruit juice.
3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who is asking about conjugated equine estrogens. The healthcare provider should inform the client this medication is contraindicated in which of the following conditions?
- A. Atrophic vaginitis
- B. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Thrombophlebitis
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Conjugated equine estrogens are contraindicated in individuals with a history of thrombophlebitis due to the increased risk of thrombotic events associated with estrogen use. Thrombophlebitis is a condition characterized by inflammation and blood clot formation in the veins, and estrogen therapy can exacerbate this condition, leading to serious complications such as deep vein thrombosis. Therefore, caution is advised when considering estrogen therapy in clients with a history of thrombophlebitis to prevent adverse outcomes. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for conjugated equine estrogens. Atrophic vaginitis and dysfunctional uterine bleeding may actually be conditions for which estrogen therapy is indicated. Osteoporosis can also be managed with estrogen therapy in certain cases to help prevent bone density loss.
4. A client has a prescription for gentamicin for the treatment of an infection. Which finding indicates a potential adverse reaction to the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 160/90 mm Hg
- B. Presence of red blood cells in the urine
- C. Urine output of 35 mL/hr
- D. Respiratory rate of 22/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The presence of red blood cells in the urine can indicate nephrotoxicity, which is a potential adverse effect of gentamicin. Gentamicin can cause damage to the kidneys, leading to the presence of red blood cells in the urine as a sign of renal impairment. Monitoring for this finding is crucial to detect and manage adverse reactions promptly. High blood pressure (Choice A) is not typically associated with gentamicin use. Low urine output (Choice C) is more suggestive of kidney injury rather than nephrotoxicity specifically related to gentamicin. Respiratory rate (Choice D) is not a common indicator of adverse reactions to gentamicin.
5. A client with end-stage cancer receiving Morphine has been prescribed Methylnaltrexone. The client's daughter asks about the purpose of Methylnaltrexone. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. The medication will increase your mother's respirations.
- B. The medication will prevent dependence on the Morphine.
- C. The medication will relieve your mother's constipation.
- D. The medication works with the Morphine to increase pain relief.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Methylnaltrexone is an opioid antagonist used to treat severe constipation unresponsive to laxatives in opioid-dependent clients. It functions by blocking the mu opioid receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, helping alleviate constipation associated with opioid use. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Methylnaltrexone does not increase respirations, prevent dependence on Morphine, or work with Morphine to increase pain relief; its primary purpose is to relieve opioid-induced constipation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access