Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Metoprolol. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication with food.
• B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
• C. Avoid sudden discontinuation of the medication.
• D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid sudden discontinuation of Metoprolol. Metoprolol is a beta-blocker that should be tapered off gradually to prevent rebound hypertension and other cardiac issues. Abruptly stopping Metoprolol can lead to serious complications, so it is essential for the client to follow the healthcare provider's guidance on discontinuation. Choice A is incorrect because Metoprolol can be taken with or without food. Choice B is incorrect as Metoprolol is not typically associated with causing hyperglycemia. Choice D is also incorrect as there is no need to increase potassium-rich foods specifically due to taking Metoprolol.

2. A client has a new prescription for Clonidine. What instruction should the nurse include during teaching?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded.
• C. Increase your fluid intake.
• D. Avoid foods high in fat.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction when teaching a client about Clonidine is to expect to feel drowsy or lightheaded. Clonidine can cause these side effects, especially when starting the medication. The nurse should advise the client to avoid activities that require alertness until they understand how the medication affects them. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking Clonidine with food, increasing fluid intake, or avoiding foods high in fat are not specific instructions related to managing the side effects of Clonidine.

3. A client is taking oral Oxycodone and Ibuprofen. The nurse should identify that an interaction between these two medications will cause which of the following findings?

• A. A decrease in serum levels of ibuprofen, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• B. A decrease in serum levels of oxycodone, possibly leading to a need for increased doses of this medication.
• C. An increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications.
• D. An increase in expected adverse effects for both medications.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The interaction between oxycodone and ibuprofen results in an increase in the expected therapeutic effect of both medications. Oxycodone is a narcotic analgesic, while ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). They work through different mechanisms but complement each other in pain management. When taken together, they can enhance the pain-relieving effects of each other, providing better pain relief for the client.

4. When assessing a client taking Lithium Carbonate for Bipolar disorder, which finding should the nurse recognize as a possible indication of toxicity to this medication?

• A. Severe hypertension
• B. Coarse tremors
• C. Constipation
• D. Muscle spasm

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Coarse tremors. Coarse tremors are a common sign of Lithium toxicity. Monitoring for tremors is crucial as they can indicate a potentially serious complication that requires immediate intervention. While other options such as severe hypertension, constipation, and muscle spasm may be symptoms of various conditions, they are not typically associated with Lithium toxicity. Severe hypertension is not a common sign of Lithium toxicity; constipation is not a typical symptom of Lithium toxicity either, and muscle spasm is not a direct indicator of Lithium toxicity.

5. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the medication rapidly over 15 minutes.
• B. Monitor the client for hypertension during infusion.
• C. Administer a test dose before the full dose.
• D. Monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

Similar Questions