Nursing Elites

1. A client with active tuberculosis asks why he must take four different medications. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

• A. Four medications decrease the risk of a severe allergic reaction.
• B. Four medications reduce the chance that the bacteria will become resistant.
• C. Four medications reduce the risk of adverse reactions.
• D. Four medications decrease the chance of having a positive tuberculin skin test.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

2. A client is to receive Pamidronate for bone pain related to cancer. What precaution should the nurse take during the administration of Pamidronate?

• A. Inspect the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site.
• B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
• C. Instruct the client to lie down for 30 minutes after oral administration.
• D. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis for 20 minutes after intramuscular injection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pamidronate is typically administered through IV infusion, which can cause irritation to veins. The nurse should frequently assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during the administration to promptly detect any potential complications related to the infusion. Inspecting the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site (Choice A) is not directly related to IV infusion. Instructing the client to lie down after oral administration (Choice C) is not necessary for IV administration. Monitoring for signs of anaphylaxis after an intramuscular injection (Choice D) is not relevant for an IV infusion of Pamidronate.

3. A client has a new prescription for transdermal patches. Which statement should the client make to indicate understanding of the instructions?

• A. I will clean the site with an alcohol swab before applying the patch.
• B. I will rotate the application sites weekly.
• C. I will apply the patch to an area of skin with no hair.
• D. I will place the new patch on the site of the old patch.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying the patch to a hairless area of skin is essential for optimal medication absorption. Hair can interfere with the patch's adherence and effectiveness. It is important for the client to choose a site without hair to ensure proper delivery of the medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because cleaning the site with an alcohol swab (Choice A) is a good practice but not the most crucial aspect for transdermal patch application. Rotating application sites weekly (Choice B) is more relevant for injections to prevent skin irritation or breakdown. Placing the new patch on the site of the old patch (Choice D) can lead to skin irritation and poor absorption due to a build-up of medication.

4. Which of the following diuretics inhibits sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while sparing K+ and hydrogen ions?

• A. Spironolactone
• B. Furosemide
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide
• D. Bumetanide

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is the correct answer as it is classified as a potassium-sparing diuretic. It works by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys while promoting the retention of potassium and hydrogen ions. This mechanism of action helps in reducing fluid retention without causing excessive loss of potassium, which is a common side effect of other diuretics. Furosemide (choice B), Hydrochlorothiazide (choice C), and Bumetanide (choice D) are not correct as they are not potassium-sparing diuretics. Furosemide and Bumetanide are loop diuretics that inhibit sodium, potassium, and chloride reabsorption in the loop of Henle. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that inhibits sodium and chloride reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to potassium loss.

5. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods high in magnesium.
• D. Limit fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking furosemide is to eat a diet high in potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, potentially causing hypokalemia. Consuming foods rich in potassium can help maintain normal potassium levels in the body and counteract the potential side effect of furosemide. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because taking furosemide in the morning does not specifically relate to its effectiveness or side effects, avoiding foods high in magnesium is not a primary concern when taking furosemide, and limiting fluid intake to 1 liter per day is not a general recommendation for individuals taking furosemide.

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