Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who is receiving treatment with carboplatin. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional monitor?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Ototoxicity
• C. Hypertension
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare professional should monitor the client for ototoxicity when receiving carboplatin. Ototoxicity is a known serious adverse effect associated with this medication, characterized by damage to the inner ear structures leading to hearing loss or balance issues. Monitoring for hearing changes and balance problems is crucial to detect ototoxicity early and prevent further complications. Hyperglycemia, hypertension, and bradycardia are not typically associated with carboplatin therapy.

2. A client has a new prescription for Phenelzine for the treatment of depression. Which of the following indicates that the client has developed an adverse effect of this medication?

• A. Orthostatic hypotension
• B. Hearing loss
• C. Gastrointestinal bleeding
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Orthostatic hypotension is a known adverse effect of MAOIs, such as Phenelzine. It is characterized by a drop in blood pressure upon standing, which can lead to dizziness or fainting. Monitoring for orthostatic hypotension is crucial when administering MAOIs to prevent potential complications. Hearing loss (Choice B) is not a typical adverse effect associated with Phenelzine. Gastrointestinal bleeding (Choice C) is more commonly linked to NSAIDs or anticoagulants. Weight loss (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of Phenelzine and is more likely related to other factors such as appetite changes or metabolic issues.

3. A client in an acute care facility is receiving IV Nitroprusside for hypertensive crisis. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following adverse reactions to this medication?

• A. Intestinal ileus
• B. Neutropenia
• C. Delirium
• D. Hyperthermia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Delirium. When IV nitroprusside is administered at high dosages, it can lead to thiocyanate toxicity, resulting in mental status changes such as delirium. Monitoring thiocyanate levels during therapy is crucial to ensure they remain below 10 mg/dL to prevent this adverse reaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because nitroprusside does not typically cause intestinal ileus, neutropenia, or hyperthermia as adverse reactions.

4. Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a

• A. Anti-inflammatory
• B. Antiarrhythmic
• C. Diuretic
• D. Antifungal

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is classified as a diuretic. Diuretics are medications that help the body get rid of excess salt and water by increasing urine production, reducing fluid retention, and lowering blood pressure. Option A, Anti-inflammatory, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide does not primarily reduce inflammation. Option B, Antiarrhythmic, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to correct heart rhythm irregularities. Option D, Antifungal, is incorrect because hydrochlorothiazide is not used to treat fungal infections.

5. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider instruct the client to monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause a non-productive cough due to its effect on bradykinin levels. The client should be advised to report this symptom to their healthcare provider to consider alternative treatments. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because weight gain, diarrhea, and nausea are not typically associated with Enalapril use.

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