Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking Sucralfate PO for Peptic Ulcer Disease and has a new prescription for phenytoin to control seizures. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take an antacid with the sucralfate.
• B. Take sucralfate with a glass of milk.
• C. Allow a 2-hour interval between these medications.
• D. Chew the sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Sucralfate can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin. To prevent this interaction, the client should allow a 2-hour interval between taking sucralfate and phenytoin. This timing helps to ensure adequate absorption and effectiveness of both medications without compromising therapeutic outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking an antacid with sucralfate, taking sucralfate with a glass of milk, and chewing sucralfate thoroughly before swallowing do not address the need for a 2-hour interval between these medications to prevent interference with phenytoin absorption.

2. A client with breast cancer is receiving cyclophosphamide. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hyperglycemia
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Hemorrhagic cystitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the client for hemorrhagic cystitis when receiving cyclophosphamide due to its potential to cause bladder irritation and lead to this serious adverse effect. It is essential to assess for symptoms such as hematuria, dysuria, and flank pain. Monitoring for hypertension, hyperglycemia, and ototoxicity is not directly related to the side effects of cyclophosphamide.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the medical history of a client who is scheduled for surgery and takes Warfarin daily. Which of the following laboratory results should the healthcare provider monitor?

• A. Potassium level
• B. INR
• C. BUN
• D. Platelet count

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the most important lab value to monitor in a client taking warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and the INR reflects the effectiveness of anticoagulation therapy. Monitoring the INR helps ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both clotting and bleeding complications.

4. A client has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take furosemide in the morning.
• B. Eat a diet high in potassium.
• C. Avoid foods that are high in magnesium.
• D. Limit your fluid intake to 1 liter per day.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to 'Eat a diet high in potassium.' Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low potassium levels). Instructing the client to eat a diet high in potassium can help counteract the potassium-wasting effect of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Choice A is incorrect because furosemide can be taken at different times of the day based on individual needs. Choice C is incorrect as furosemide does not directly interact with magnesium levels. Choice D is incorrect because while fluid intake may need to be monitored, a specific limit of 1 liter per day is not a general instruction for all clients taking furosemide.

5. Which of the following conditions are not treated with Barbiturates?

• A. Seizures
• B. Hypotension
• C. Insomnia
• D. Anxiety

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Hypotension is not treated with barbiturates. Barbiturates are primarily used for treating seizures, insomnia, and anxiety, but they are not indicated for the treatment of hypotension.

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