a nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets which of the following instructions sh
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology Test Bank

1. A client is prescribed Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include during discharge teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During a chest pain episode, the client should take one nitroglycerin tablet sublingually every 5 minutes up to a total of three doses. If chest pain persists after three doses, emergency medical attention should be sought. Nitroglycerin should not be swallowed but allowed to dissolve under the tongue for rapid absorption. Storing the medication in a cool, dry place helps maintain its effectiveness.

2. A client has a new prescription for Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When teaching a client about Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis, the nurse should include instructions to inject the medication subcutaneously or administer it intranasally. Option A is incorrect because Calcitonin-Salmon is not typically administered intramuscularly. Option B is incorrect because it is not meant to be swallowed. Option D is incorrect as nasal bleeding is not an expected side effect with this medication.

3. When discussing immunizations, which vaccine series is typically completed before a child's first birthday?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rotavirus vaccine. The rotavirus vaccine series is usually completed before a child's first birthday. It is given to infants in a series of doses starting at 2 months of age and must be completed by 8 months of age. This vaccine helps protect against severe diarrhea and vomiting caused by rotavirus infection, which is common in infants and young children. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, Meningococcal conjugate vaccine, and Varicella vaccine are not typically completed before a child's first birthday.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client's medication history and notes a new prescription for Enalapril. The healthcare professional should monitor the client for which of the following as an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hyperkalemia as an adverse effect due to decreased aldosterone levels, which leads to potassium retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent potential complications associated with hyperkalemia. The other options, bradycardia, hypoglycemia, and hypocalcemia, are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to occur as adverse effects.

5. A client with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) is to be started on intravenous rifampin therapy. The client should be informed by the nurse that this medication can cause which of the following adverse effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Body secretions turning a red-orange color. Rifampin is known to cause body secretions, such as urine, sweat, tears, and sputum, to turn a harmless red-orange color. This is a common and expected side effect of rifampin therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of rifampin. Black-colored stools and staining of teeth are not associated with rifampin therapy. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about the harmless red-orange discoloration that may occur with this medication.

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