a nurse is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg po every 6 hr prn for pain the amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg5 ml how many m
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Nursing Elites

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ATI Pharmacology

1. A patient is prescribed acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The available acetaminophen liquid is 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen liquid per dose to provide the prescribed 650 mg of acetaminophen. Choice B, 7 mL, is incorrect because the correct calculation results in 6.5 mL. Choice C, 5 mL, is incorrect as it is the concentration of the acetaminophen liquid, not the final volume needed. Choice D, 8 mL, is incorrect because it does not reflect the accurate calculation based on the prescription and concentration.

2. A client is prescribed an IM dose of penicillin. She reports developing a rash after taking penicillin 3 years ago. What action should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The healthcare professional should withhold the medication and notify the provider of the client's previous reaction to penicillin. It is crucial to report any past allergic reactions to medications, as this information guides the provider in prescribing a safe alternative. Administering the prescribed dose without considering the client's history of developing a rash can lead to potentially severe adverse reactions. Changing the prescription to an oral form or administering an oral antihistamine does not address the risk of an allergic reaction to penicillin in this case.

3. A healthcare provider is reviewing the health care record of a client who reports urinary incontinence and asks about a prescription for Oxybutynin. The provider should recognize that Oxybutynin is contraindicated in the presence of which of the following conditions?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication that can increase intraocular pressure. It is contraindicated in clients with glaucoma, as it can worsen the condition. Glaucoma is a condition characterized by increased intraocular pressure, and using Oxybutynin can further elevate this pressure, potentially leading to serious complications such as vision impairment or damage to the optic nerve. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as bursitis, sinusitis, and depression are not contraindications for Oxybutynin use. Therefore, the correct answer is D, Glaucoma.

4. A client has a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria. Which of the following Cephalosporin antibiotics should be administered IV to treat this infection?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In treating a Cerebrospinal fluid infection caused by gram-negative bacteria, Cefepime, a fourth-generation cephalosporin, is the most suitable choice due to its enhanced efficacy against gram-negative organisms in such infections. Cefaclor (Choice A) is a second-generation cephalosporin more commonly used for respiratory tract infections. Cefazolin (Choice B) is a first-generation cephalosporin often used for skin and soft tissue infections. Cephalexin (Choice D) is a first-generation cephalosporin indicated for skin and urinary tract infections, but not the optimal choice for a Cerebrospinal fluid infection with gram-negative bacteria.

5. When caring for a client receiving treatment with irinotecan, which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is diarrhea. Irinotecan commonly causes diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Monitoring for diarrhea is essential to prevent dehydration and manage this side effect effectively. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as hypertension, ototoxicity, and neutropenia are not commonly associated with irinotecan therapy.

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